There are three occasions of people speaking in tongues in Acts. But someone can try to 'prove' lots of things using your same line of reasoning.
Would you agree with these statements:
"Every time someone got saved in the book of Acts, Jews were present. So no one can get saved without a Jew present."
"Every time someone got baptized in the book of Acts, Jews performed the baptism. So no one can be baptized properly without a Jew doing it."
The problem with these statements is that the Bible doesn't teach that only Jews can do these things, and the theory doesn't fit the didactic, doctrinal teaching of the New Testament on the issue. The only person who would believe such things is someone who has a pre-existing belief about how Jews have to do the spiritual things in the church, and wants to read it into the New Testament.
You are doing the same thing with speaking in tongues. You want it to be a sign for the Jews only.
You'll notice that Paul said that tongues is a sign not to them that believe, but to them that believe not. Yet don't you have tongues functioning as a sign to believing Jews in your interpretations of Acts 10 and 19?
You'll also notice chapter 19 doesn't say anything about tongues serving as a sign to the Jews present that those who spoke in tongues were filled with the Holy Spirit. You are eisegeting into the passage.
I Corinthians 12 shows that the audience he is addressing were former idolators. Most likely they were pagans, but 'divers tongues' is among the gifts that these saints can receive.
Btw, there are still Jews today. I've gone to church with believing Jews before and one pastor at a church I went to had a Jewish mother.
Would you agree with these statements:
"Every time someone got saved in the book of Acts, Jews were present. So no one can get saved without a Jew present."
"Every time someone got baptized in the book of Acts, Jews performed the baptism. So no one can be baptized properly without a Jew doing it."
The problem with these statements is that the Bible doesn't teach that only Jews can do these things, and the theory doesn't fit the didactic, doctrinal teaching of the New Testament on the issue. The only person who would believe such things is someone who has a pre-existing belief about how Jews have to do the spiritual things in the church, and wants to read it into the New Testament.
You are doing the same thing with speaking in tongues. You want it to be a sign for the Jews only.
You'll notice that Paul said that tongues is a sign not to them that believe, but to them that believe not. Yet don't you have tongues functioning as a sign to believing Jews in your interpretations of Acts 10 and 19?
You'll also notice chapter 19 doesn't say anything about tongues serving as a sign to the Jews present that those who spoke in tongues were filled with the Holy Spirit. You are eisegeting into the passage.
I Corinthians 12 shows that the audience he is addressing were former idolators. Most likely they were pagans, but 'divers tongues' is among the gifts that these saints can receive.
Btw, there are still Jews today. I've gone to church with believing Jews before and one pastor at a church I went to had a Jewish mother.
I'm also concerned with some cessationists readiness to accuse since Jesus warned those who called the Holy Spirit an unclean spirit by attributing His works to unclean spirits that speaking against the Holy Spirit was a sin for which there was no forgiveness in this age or in the age to come.
I hope I am wrong.
For the cause of Christ
Roger