Oh... Don't forget that if the Gospels were written anywhere near 100 years after the death of Christ, they would not be written in the "late first century". Unless Christ was crucified before 0 AD, saying they were written in the late first century and claiming that they were written 100 years after the event are mutually exclusive.
I think we can dismiss this "scholarly" assertion out of hand, since it refutes itself... Unless some sources are provided?
I think we can dismiss this "scholarly" assertion out of hand, since it refutes itself... Unless some sources are provided?
Late first century and "About a hundred years" are not mutably exclusive though. If you are gonna use word play against someone, you have to use all their words