I totally agree i find it funny that everyone always tries to argue that baptism is a work and that if Jesus died on the cross for our sins then being baptized can't be essential otherwise we are trying to "work" our way into heaven.
There are few problems with this and that line of thought.
1. The assumption is made that baptism is a work. The problem is baptism is not a work. It is an act of obedience in faith to what Jesus has said. Jesus said that you are to "repent and be baptized". It is not the water itself that saves you, it's the act of being obedient to what Jesus says to do that saves you and he says "repent and be baptized." If you choose to do one of the above and not the other you are taking away from what the bible says:
Revelation 22:18-20
[SUP]18 [/SUP]For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:
[SUP]19 [/SUP]And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.
[SUP]20 [/SUP]He which testifieth these things saith, Surely I come quickly. Amen. Even so, come, Lord Jesus.
Water baptism is no different than repentance or confession. They are responses to believing in Jesus Christ because if you believe in Jesus then you are obedient to do what he says to be saved.
Galatians 3:27, "For as many of you as were baptized into Christ have put on Christ." This is the only way a person can get into Christ. The preposition into indicates a change of relationship. You can search from the front to the back of your Bible, and you will find no other way to get into Christ except by being baptized into Christ. Also Romans 6:3 says the same thing, "Or do you not know, that as many of us as were baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into his death?"
2. The second thing is that everyone who tries to dismiss water baptism as a work and say it is not essential is they basically have to dismiss and change the meaning of every single verse that talks about water baptism and salvation. But if you look at the greek text and just look at the context of the passages especially acts 2:38 you can plainly see this verse is talking about water baptism. I am not saying every verse that mentions baptism is talking about water baptism, but this verse plainly is.
Also people try to make the argument that acts 2:38 means :because of the remission of sins" and not for the remission of sins but every english translation and every greek scholar i know would disagree with that. Make no mistake every translation translates this verse "for" the remission of sins not "because of the remission of sins" like i have heard from many people in the past try to make this verse say. None of them translate "eis" into "because of". These constitute the major works of the best Greek scholars of the past several centuries.
WHAT THE TRANSLATIONS SAY ABOUT THIS
"Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit" (MATTHEW 28:18). Teaching the gospel to all nations makes translating the Scriptures into various languages necessary. We have English translations because we speak English. How do the various English versions translate ACTS 2:38 from Greek to English? How many say the Greek word "eis" (for) means "because of" or something similar? Which translation do you use? What does it say?
"..and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins.." (King James).
"..let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins.." (New American Standard).
"..let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ, for the remission of sins.." (New King James).
"..and be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ, so that your sins will be forgiven.." (Today's English).
"..be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins.." (Challoner-Rheims).
"..be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ so that your sins may be forgiven.." (New International - 1978 edition).
"..be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ unto the remission of your sins.." (American Standard).
"..be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins.." (Revised Standard).
".. each one of you must be immersed by the authority of Jesus the Messiah, so that your sins may be forgiven.." (Simple English Bible).
REPENTANCE AND BAPTISM ARE "FOR" THE SAME PURPOSE
"...Unless you repent you will all likewise perish" (LUKE 13:3). Very few would say that one is forgiven of his sins even before he repents of them. They would not say that one repents because his sins have already been forgiven. And they are right because the Bible says one must repent in order to receive forgiveness.
Interestingly enough, one of the verses of Scripture that teach this about repentance is ACTS 2:38. Even more to the point, it mentions two prerequisites to the remission of sins. One is repentance and the other is baptism! How can one split the verse down the middle accepting that repentance is necessary but not baptism?
People need to take Jesus at his word!
Baptism is necessary. You read "water" into Acts 2:38 which no where in it's context mentions water.
Baptism does not mean water. Baptism means, "to immerse, submerge; to make overwhelmed".
It is you and those with like minds as you that insists this means with literal water.
Yet, all you can do is claim that water is implied and to do that you ignore much relative scripture, picking only one or two verses which when misapplied seem to make your claim valid.
The problem is that you wish to hold onto what became accepted practice rather than seeing that if what you say were so, then there would have been evidence leading up to it in the things that Jesus spoke while he was yet alive in the flesh. But there is no such evidence as that clearly Jesus never said that a second water baptism was required.
John's baptism was for sins committed against that Old law Covenant only by those who were under that Old Law Covenant, which also is shown in that Jesus said, Matthew 15:24 "But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel".
That is why we do not find John's baptism ever required of the Gentiles, but we only see it required of those Jews under the Law. It was for the purpose of preparing the way in the hearts of the Jews to accept Christ as the end of that Old Law Covenant. Luke 16:16 "The law and the prophets were until [which includes] John: since that time [since John's time] the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it."
John was the last Prophet of that Old Law Covenant to testify, Matthew 11:13 "For all the prophets and the law prophesied until John." John was related through blood to the priesthood of Arron and that priesthood ended with that Old law Covenant, so that Christ became a priest not after the manner of Arron but after the manner of Melchizedek. John was definitely the Last Prophet of that Old Law Covenant preceding the prophet greater than Moses whose role Jesus Christ himself fulfilled. (See Hebrews 3:1-6 and compare, Acts 3:22-26)
By repenting of their sins against that Old Law Covenant they were confessing that they were unable to fully keep that Old Law Covenant and accepting that old Law was but a temporary schoolmaster leading to Christ. That is why there is absolutely no mention of John's baptism ever going out to the Gentiles.
Galatians 3:24 "Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith."
Galatians 3:25 "But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster."
That is enough for this post.
Remember, the only wall to finding out what we don't yet know is that wall of thinking we already know. That fleshly face has hindered us all for sometime now. But it is time to get over it.
