gal 3:10-12 to those who keep looking law ward.

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Wall

Senior Member
Mar 13, 2013
1,417
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Speaking of Isaiah 66

EZEKIEL 20 [12] Moreover also I GAVE THEM MY SABBATHS, TO BE A SIGN between me and them, that they might know THAT I AM THE LORD THAT SANCTIFY THEM.

The sabbath is a sign between God and his people that the “Lord does sanctify them”.

ISAIAH 66 [15] For, behold, the LORD will come with fire, and with his chariots like a whirlwind, to render his anger with fury, and his rebuke with flames of fire.[16] For by fire and by his sword will the LORD plead with all flesh: and the slain of the LORD shall be many.[17] THEY THAT SANCTIFY THEMSELVES, and purify themselves in the gardens behind one tree in the midst, EATING SWINE'S FLESH, and the abomination, and the mouse, SHALL BE CONSUMED together, saith the LORD.

So who are they that sanctify themselves? Think about it
 
Oct 31, 2011
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Those injunctions in Acts 15 were established so as not to offend the Jewish believers.
Those injunctions in Acts 15 were given so the new Christians who had been pagans and did not know anything about God could be accepted in synagogue so they could learn from scripture. We think NT is the scripture, they had the OT, and our idea of what is scripture would have made them wonder if we had lost our minds.
 

crossnote

Senior Member
Nov 24, 2012
30,742
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ISAIAH 66 [15] For, behold, the LORD will come with fire, and with his chariots like a whirlwind, to render his anger with fury, and his rebuke with flames of fire.[16] For by fire and by his sword will the LORD plead with all flesh: and the slain of the LORD shall be many.[17] THEY THAT SANCTIFY THEMSELVES, and purify themselves in the gardens behind one tree in the midst, EATING SWINE'S FLESH, and the abomination, and the mouse, SHALL BE CONSUMED together, saith the LORD.

This is a Day of the Lord scripture. That's when Jesus returns with fire. Wonder why He is gonna consume those eating swines flesh (the unclean thing)if its as youse claim.
that kind of exegesis will cause me to want to dump dispensationalism :)
 

crossnote

Senior Member
Nov 24, 2012
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The confrontation of Peter by Paul mainly had to do with Peter's weak knees when it came to standing firm for the Gospel's sake and not sending a false message of ''the Gospel is only true (we can sit and eat with the Gentiles) when the Judaiizers aren't around, but when they come, we stand aloof from them''. Peter knew better from his encounter with the vision of meats, was sent to Corneilius' house and witnessed the Holy Spirit fall on the Gentiles as well.
 

crossnote

Senior Member
Nov 24, 2012
30,742
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Those injunctions in Acts 15 were given so the new Christians who had been pagans and did not know anything about God could be accepted in synagogue so they could learn from scripture. We think NT is the scripture, they had the OT, and our idea of what is scripture would have made them wonder if we had lost our minds.
Again, not to offend the Jewish believers, inside or outside the synagogue. We are well aware the First Testament was all they had at the time.
 
N

notconformed2theworld

Guest
Speaking of Isaiah 66

EZEKIEL 20 [12] Moreover also I GAVE THEM MY SABBATHS, TO BE A SIGN between me and them, that they might know THAT I AM THE LORD THAT SANCTIFY THEM.

The sabbath is a sign between God and his people that the “Lord does sanctify them”.

ISAIAH 66 [15] For, behold, the LORD will come with fire, and with his chariots like a whirlwind, to render his anger with fury, and his rebuke with flames of fire.[16] For by fire and by his sword will the LORD plead with all flesh: and the slain of the LORD shall be many.[17] THEY THAT SANCTIFY THEMSELVES, and purify themselves in the gardens behind one tree in the midst, EATING SWINE'S FLESH, and the abomination, and the mouse, SHALL BE CONSUMED together, saith the LORD.

So who are they that sanctify themselves? Think about it
You need to remember that gentiles were not being addressed but Israel was. So it was a sign between God and Israel. Gentiles sign is the faith in Jesus resurrection and the holy spirit that follows.if isreal wasnt blinded then the holy spirit would be there sign too. Jesus came to do one thing and that was to unify Israel and gentiles under God into one new spirit led covenant. (Church).
Please tell me if you understand this passage.
Hebrews 4:3-11 KJV

For we which have believed do enter into rest, as he said, As I have sworn in my wrath, if they shall enter into my rest: although the works were finished from the foundation of the world. For he spake in a certain place of the seventh day on this wise, And God did rest the seventh day from all his works. And in this place again, If they shall enter into my rest. Seeing therefore it remaineth that some must enter therein, and they to whom it was first preached entered not in because of unbelief: Again, he limiteth a certain day, saying in David, To day, after so long a time; as it is said, To day if ye will hear his voice, harden not your hearts. For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day. There remaineth therefore a rest to the people of God. For he that is entered into his rest, he also hath ceased from his own works, as God did from his. Let us labour therefore to enter into that rest, lest any man fall after the same example of unbelief.
 
L

Laodicea

Guest
You need to remember that gentiles were not being addressed but Israel was. So it was a sign between God and Israel. Gentiles sign is the faith in Jesus resurrection and the holy spirit that follows.if isreal wasnt blinded then the holy spirit would be there sign too. Jesus came to do one thing and that was to unify Israel and gentiles under God into one new spirit led covenant. (Church).
Please tell me if you understand this passage.
Hebrews 4:3-11 KJV

For we which have believed do enter into rest, as he said, As I have sworn in my wrath, if they shall enter into my rest: although the works were finished from the foundation of the world. For he spake in a certain place of the seventh day on this wise, And God did rest the seventh day from all his works. And in this place again, If they shall enter into my rest. Seeing therefore it remaineth that some must enter therein, and they to whom it was first preached entered not in because of unbelief: Again, he limiteth a certain day, saying in David, To day, after so long a time; as it is said, To day if ye will hear his voice, harden not your hearts. For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day. There remaineth therefore a rest to the people of God. For he that is entered into his rest, he also hath ceased from his own works, as God did from his. Let us labour therefore to enter into that rest, lest any man fall after the same example of unbelief.
Romans 2:28-29 (KJV)
[SUP]28 [/SUP]For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh:
[SUP]29 [/SUP]But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.
 
H

haz

Guest
When John said Christians "cannot sin" he wasn't implying inability to sin for if that was the case we wouldn't need an Advocate (1 John 2:1). It means we won't continually sin because the Spirit of God indwells us working in us to do His will and good pleasure, whereas unregenerates will continue in sin as the eyes of their heart haven't been enlightened to the truth.

Christians are the righteousness of God in Christ.
I have heard it argued before that 1John 3:6-9 means Christians do not "continuously" or "habitually" sin. But that is an incorrect view.

I have often asked others what determines "habitual"?
Is it exceeding 7x70 offenses?
And over what time frame too?
Some of us live longer than others. So are we to assume that the thief on the cross who called Jesus "Lord" was truly blessed with a death bed salvation whilst those who live the longest have to prove through life long good behavior that they are not one of the unregenerates?

And what amount of good behavior is considered right? Is it perfect obedience to the law, as is required under the law (James 2:10) or is a lessor, yet acceptable degree, sufficient? And if it's the latter, what is that level as it's important we know these details as our salvation would therefore depend on it?

I have asked these questions of many who argued about the view for "habitual" sin, and none have been able to find any scripture to support their view.

Therefore it's clearly error.

I suggest to you that what 1John 3:9 means is that in believing in Jesus our faith is counted for righteousness, (Rom 4:5) hence we cannot be charged with sin/transgression of the law as we're not under the law for righteousness (Rom 10:4).

And as for the obvious failings we still see Christians struggle with, they are not what determines whether we are righteous or not. That physical body is already dead (by faith) because of sin, Rom 8:10. Hence we do not judge our righteousness by it's behavior.

Instead it's our faith that is counted for righteousness, Rom 4:5.
Our life is hid with Christ in God, Col 3:3, hence (as you said in your post) "Christians are the righteousness of God in Christ."
 

nl

Senior Member
Jun 26, 2011
933
22
18
There are many defintions for the word repent.
People of faith would do well not to be in doubt about the definition of the words like "repent" (and "love").

Rather than doubting the meaning of words, professors of faith would do well to doubt their own assurance of salvation.

Repentance should be plain and simple enough. There's no need to make it complicated. Those who work at sin and iniquity would do well to repent of their works of sin and iniquity.

Bible:

If any man be in Christ, he is a new creature The old things have passed away. Behold, all things become new. - 2 Corinthians 5:17

...Give diligence to make your calling and election sure. - 2 Peter 1:10

...work out your own salvation with fear and trembling. - Philippians 2:12

We know that we have passed from death to live because we love the brethren - 1 John 3:14 // By this we know that we love the children of God, when we love God and keep his commandments - 1 John 5:2

Strive to enter in at the narrow gate for many...will seek to enter in and shall not be able. You will stand outside and knock and say: "Lord, Lord, open for us"...and the Lord will say "Depart from me all you workers of iniquity." (adapted from Luke 13:24-27)

...the Lord knows those who are his...Let every one who names the name of Christ depart from iniquity. (2 Timothy 2:19)
 

homwardbound

Senior Member
Oct 24, 2012
16,466
460
83
People of faith would do well not to be in doubt about the definition of the words like "repent" (and "love").

Rather than doubting the meaning of words, professors of faith would do well to doubt their own assurance of salvation.

Repentance should be plain and simple enough. There's no need to make it complicated. Those who work at sin and iniquity would do well to repent of their works of sin and iniquity.

Bible:

If any man be in Christ, he is a new creature The old things have passed away. Behold, all things become new. - 2 Corinthians 5:17

...Give diligence to make your calling and election sure. - 2 Peter 1:10

...work out your own salvation with fear and trembling. - Philippians 2:12

We know that we have passed from death to live because we love the brethren - 1 John 3:14 // By this we know that we love the children of God, when we love God and keep his commandments - 1 John 5:2

Strive to enter in at the narrow gate for many...will seek to enter in and shall not be able. You will stand outside and knock and say: "Lord, Lord, open for us"...and the Lord will say "Depart from me all you workers of iniquity." (adapted from Luke 13:24-27)

...the Lord knows those who are his...Let every one who names the name of Christ depart from iniquity. (2 Timothy 2:19)
Yep,when therubber hits the road, the professors will be seperated from the possesors, for it is by Christ we are saved and Christ alone brings us to God the Father and to finishe that phil. 2:12 verse the next one says
[h=3]Philippians 2:13[/h]King James Version (KJV)

[SUP]13 [/SUP]For it is God which worketh in you both to will and to do of his good pleasure.
 

JaumeJ

Senior Member
Jul 2, 2011
21,428
6,706
113
There were always those who knew of the promise of Yahweh's Lamb.

Abraham for one, along with the other patriarchs. When Abraham prophesied, "God will provide, Himself, a Lamb for the offering," and then took a ram and offered it up in the place of Isaac, he knew of God's Lamb.

David knew the grace of Yahweh, otherwise he could never have written the Psalms credited him, especially Psalm 32 where he, in the Holy Spirit, mentions those whose sin is not held against them, having had the guilt of it removed. Many others knew the grace that is Yahweh.
 

starfield

Senior Member
Jun 13, 2009
3,393
58
48
I have heard it argued before that 1John 3:6-9 means Christians do not "continuously" or "habitually" sin. But that is an incorrect view.

I have often asked others what determines "habitual"?
Is it exceeding 7x70 offenses?
And over what time frame too?
Some of us live longer than others. So are we to assume that the thief on the cross who called Jesus "Lord" was truly blessed with a death bed salvation whilst those who live the longest have to prove through life long good behavior that they are not one of the unregenerates?

And what amount of good behavior is considered right? Is it perfect obedience to the law, as is required under the law (James 2:10) or is a lessor, yet acceptable degree, sufficient? And if it's the latter, what is that level as it's important we know these details as our salvation would therefore depend on it?

I have asked these questions of many who argued about the view for "habitual" sin, and none have been able to find any scripture to support their view.

Therefore it's clearly error.

I suggest to you that what 1John 3:9 means is that in believing in Jesus our faith is counted for righteousness, (Rom 4:5) hence we cannot be charged with sin/transgression of the law as we're not under the law for righteousness (Rom 10:4).

And as for the obvious failings we still see Christians struggle with, they are not what determines whether we are righteous or not. That physical body is already dead (by faith) because of sin, Rom 8:10. Hence we do not judge our righteousness by it's behavior.

Instead it's our faith that is counted for righteousness, Rom 4:5.
Our life is hid with Christ in God, Col 3:3, hence (as you said in your post) "Christians are the righteousness of God in Christ."

So your interpretation of 1 John 3:9 is that Christians are unable to fall into sin?
 

john832

Senior Member
May 31, 2013
11,389
193
63
You need to remember that gentiles were not being addressed but Israel was. So it was a sign between God and Israel. Gentiles sign is the faith in Jesus resurrection and the holy spirit that follows.if isreal wasnt blinded then the holy spirit would be there sign too. Jesus came to do one thing and that was to unify Israel and gentiles under God into one new spirit led covenant. (Church).
Please tell me if you understand this passage.
Hebrews 4:3-11 KJV

For we which have believed do enter into rest, as he said, As I have sworn in my wrath, if they shall enter into my rest: although the works were finished from the foundation of the world. For he spake in a certain place of the seventh day on this wise, And God did rest the seventh day from all his works. And in this place again, If they shall enter into my rest. Seeing therefore it remaineth that some must enter therein, and they to whom it was first preached entered not in because of unbelief: Again, he limiteth a certain day, saying in David, To day, after so long a time; as it is said, To day if ye will hear his voice, harden not your hearts. For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day. There remaineth therefore a rest to the people of God. For he that is entered into his rest, he also hath ceased from his own works, as God did from his. Let us labour therefore to enter into that rest, lest any man fall after the same example of unbelief.
In Isa 66, God is speaking of the Millenium when all will be under the governance of Jesus Christ and the Kingdom of God. At that time...

Isa 2:2 And it shall come to pass in the last days, that the mountain of the LORD'S house shall be established in the top of the mountains, and shall be exalted above the hills; and all nations shall flow unto it.
Isa 2:3 And many people shall go and say, Come ye, and let us go up to the mountain of the LORD, to the house of the God of Jacob; and he will teach us of his ways, and we will walk in his paths: for out of Zion shall go forth the law, and the word of the LORD from Jerusalem.

What Law? the word for Law here is...

H8451
תּרה תּורה
tôrâh tôrâh
to-raw', to-raw'
From H3384; a precept or statute, especially the Decalogue or Pentateuch: - law.

Mic 4:1 But in the last days it shall come to pass, that the mountain of the house of the LORD shall be established in the top of the mountains, and it shall be exalted above the hills; and people shall flow unto it.
Mic 4:2 And many nations shall come, and say, Come, and let us go up to the mountain of the LORD, and to the house of the God of Jacob; and he will teach us of his ways, and we will walk in his paths: for the law shall go forth of Zion, and the word of the LORD from Jerusalem.

Yep, same word and same Law and this is the fulfillment of...

Heb 8:8 For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah:
Heb 8:9 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day when I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; because they continued not in my covenant, and I regarded them not, saith the Lord.
Heb 8:10 For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:
 

john832

Senior Member
May 31, 2013
11,389
193
63
I have heard it argued before that 1John 3:6-9 means Christians do not "continuously" or "habitually" sin. But that is an incorrect view.

I have often asked others what determines "habitual"?
Is it exceeding 7x70 offenses?
And over what time frame too?
Some of us live longer than others. So are we to assume that the thief on the cross who called Jesus "Lord" was truly blessed with a death bed salvation whilst those who live the longest have to prove through life long good behavior that they are not one of the unregenerates?

And what amount of good behavior is considered right? Is it perfect obedience to the law, as is required under the law (James 2:10) or is a lessor, yet acceptable degree, sufficient? And if it's the latter, what is that level as it's important we know these details as our salvation would therefore depend on it?
I have asked this question more than once and NEVER got a answer, so here goes again...

How much bad behavior is acceptable? How much idolatry is acceptable? how much murder? How much lying? How much (yes) Sabbath breaking is acceptable?

Can you tell me? Is there an acceptable amount of sin (I John 3:4) to God?
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
I have asked this question more than once and NEVER got a answer, so here goes again...

How much bad behavior is acceptable? How much idolatry is acceptable? how much murder? How much lying? How much (yes) Sabbath breaking is acceptable?

Can you tell me? Is there an acceptable amount of sin (I John 3:4) to God?
You the one who needs to answer this, Your the one who states one can lose salvation. So how much is acceptable?

of course, we all know the real answer. Zero. If you have done one of those, (or any other sin) you are condemned rightly..

I wonder why you want to excuse your sin as much as you do.. while judging others?
 

john832

Senior Member
May 31, 2013
11,389
193
63
You the one who needs to answer this, Your the one who states one can lose salvation. So how much is acceptable?

of course, we all know the real answer. Zero. If you have done one of those, (or any other sin) you are condemned rightly..

I wonder why you want to excuse your sin as much as you do.. while judging others?
As I said in the previous post...

"I have asked this question more than once and NEVER got a answer, so here goes again..."
 

Wall

Senior Member
Mar 13, 2013
1,417
154
63
Was the Holy Spirit present with the people of God before Christ and is the presence of the Holy Spirit a sign that you are saved?
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
As I said in the previous post...

"I have asked this question more than once and NEVER got a answer, so here goes again..."
And you can't read. I gave you the answer.

Zero

1 sin causes condemnation. That is what the law states. Break one of even the least of the law. and your guilty of breaking the whole law.

So I answered yours. Are you going to answer mine? or keep trying to pass the buck.

Why are you trying to excuse your sin? And how much sin is too much sin??
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
Was the Holy Spirit present with the people of God before Christ and is the presence of the Holy Spirit a sign that you are saved?
1. No. Only in certain circumstances.
2. According to Paul The HS is given to us, he is our seal and guarantee of eternal life. And this seal lasts until the day of redemption.
 

john832

Senior Member
May 31, 2013
11,389
193
63
And you can't read. I gave you the answer.

Zero

1 sin causes condemnation. That is what the law states. Break one of even the least of the law. and your guilty of breaking the whole law.

So I answered yours. Are you going to answer mine? or keep trying to pass the buck.

Why are you trying to excuse your sin? And how much sin is too much sin??
So, then one should not sin? What is sin? Sin is...

1Jn 3:4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.

So breaking the Law is sin, yet you tell me that we are not bound to keep the Law. Hmmm, now I am confused.