Let's find out if it should be Easter of Passover. According to the book of Acts they took Peter during the days of unleavened bread. Any time you see something in parenthesis in the KJV pay close attention, God is trying to show us something.
Act 12:1 Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church.
Act 12:2 And he killed James the brother of John with the sword.
Act 12:3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)
Act 12:4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.
Act 12:5 Peter therefore was kept in prison: but prayer was made without ceasing of the church unto God for him.
According to the book of Leviticus the 14th day of the month was passover. Then on the next day, the 15th day of the month, the feast of unleavened bread begins.
Lev 23:5 In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the LORD'S passover.
Lev 23:6 And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread.
If they took Peter during the days of unleavened bread, then Passover had already past. Now tell me, were they waiting for Easter to bring him forth to the people or were they going to wait a whole other year to bring him before the people. No, it shouldn't be Passover, it should be Easter just like the KJV says.
One lie that you have probably been told is that Easter is some Romanized Catholic church thing that was not observed by pagans at time of the book of Acts, but this is not true. Easter is the celebration of the sacred feminine AKA - Ishtar, Isis, Ashteroth, Gaia, Venus and probably many other names that I'm not aware of.
That is some of the strangest reasoning I have seen in a long time...
Act 12:4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.
The word Easter appears exactly once in the entirety of the KJV. Wonder why there is no command to keep Easter, or no scripture that show us that Easter replaces the Feasts of the Lord. The word that was translated here for Easter is...
G3957
πάσχα
pascha
pas'-khah
Of Chaldee origin (compare [H6453]); the Passover (the meal, the day, the festival or the special sacrifices connected with it): - Easter, Passover.
And now for HeRose benefit...
G3957
πάσχα
pascha
Thayer Definition:
1) the paschal sacrifice (which was accustomed to be offered for the people’s deliverance of old from Egypt)
2) the paschal lamb, i.e. the lamb the Israelites were accustomed to slay and eat on the fourteenth day of the month of Nisan (the first month of their year) in memory of the day on which their fathers, preparing to depart from Egypt, were bidden by God to slay and eat a lamb, and to sprinkle their door posts with its blood, that the destroying angel, seeing the blood, might pass over their dwellings; Christ crucified is likened to the slain paschal lamb
3) the paschal supper
4) the paschal feast, the feast of the Passover, extending from the 14th to the 20th day of the month Nisan
Part of Speech: noun neuter
I could C&P it but you can look it up (it is somewhat long), Barclay recognizes it as the Passover and Days of Unleavened Bread.
From Bullingers...
Easter. Greek. to pascha, the Passover. Easter is a heathen term, derived from the Saxon goddess Eastre, the same as Astarte, the Syrian Venus, called Ashtoreth in the O.T.
From Albert Barnes...
Intending after Easter - There never was a more absurd or unhappy translation than this. The original is simply after the Passover ( μετὰ τὸ πάσχα meta to paschaThe word “Easter” now denotes the festival observed by many Christian churches in honor of the resurrection of the Saviour. But the original has no reference to that, nor is there the slightest evidence that any such festival was observed at the time when this book was written. The translation is not only unhappy, as it does not convey at all the meaning of the original, but because it may contribute to foster an opinion that such a festival was observed in the time of the apostles. The word “Easter” is of Saxon origin, and is supposed to be derived from “Eostre,” the goddess of Love, or the Venus of the North, in honor of whom a festival was celebrated by our pagan ancestors in the month of April (Webster). Since this festival coincided with the Passover of the Jews, and with the feast observed by Christians in honor of the resurrection of Christ, the name came to be used to denote the latter. In the old Anglo-Saxon service-books the term “Easter” is used frequently to translate the word “Passover.” In the translation by Wycliffe, the word “paske,” that is, “Passover,” is used. But Tyndale and Coverdale used the word “Easter,” and hence, it has very improperly crept into our King James Version.
John Gill matter of factly states...
intending after Easter,
or the passover,
It is a mistranslation of the word pascha. It should have been Passover.
