passover and the feast of unleavened bread were often considered to be the same thing...there are examples in scripture where the names are used interchangeably...
Could you show me some of those scriptures, I've never noticed that.
passover and the feast of unleavened bread were often considered to be the same thing...there are examples in scripture where the names are used interchangeably...
How is it possible that 2 bibles that say different things can both be the inerrant word of God?
Could you show me some of those scriptures, I've never noticed that.
Here is why i believe the KJV of the bible is GODs word,
No other bible has being more persecuted or questioned in history,
No other bible has anyone ever tried to destroyed.
And this is even before you even open the first page
Please enjoy and marvel
The Story of The King James Bible - YouTube
This may very well be true ( no doubt ) -- and is very unfortunate to be so when it happens -- however, I think it is a very large jump over a wide gap to call the KJV a "cult bible" or say that the KJV has "spawned" cults.well it seems that the KJV is a favorite of cults because the archaic and harder to understand language makes it easier to distort and mislead people with...
i have seen doctrines taught from the KJV that people in king james' time would have seen as laughable...but people nowdays fall for it because they don't understand the english...
i am blonde...
i have blonde hair...
two different statements...and they are both true...
Not necessarily...........Let's say you were from a different country than I and used the first of those statements to describe yourself to me without me being able to see you. Not knowing your nationality, I might wonder if you were referring to your hair or your pallor.i am blonde...
i have blonde hair...
two different statements...and they are both true...
I read the Bible in French, do you think all French people are going to hell because they can't read your archaic version of the Bible?
i also read the Bible in Hebrew and Greek, which so many more things come out in. Things like verb tenses we do not have (aorist comes to mind!) in the Greek! As for Hebrew, it is as Semitic language, and is verbally based. Besides 3 letter consonant roots, they have aspect, person, gender, and the all important stem! A word can mean the exact opposite depending upon whether it is in the Qal or the Piel!
Now, I am not saying the KJV translators, or modern translators don't know their stuff. But I am saying there are words and concepts that can never be translated fully from Greek and Hebrew to any other language. God inspired his Word, there is no doubt about it! But even Jesus, the disciples and Paul quoted from both the Hebrew and the Septugint, and sometimes the LXX is radically different than the Hebrew!!
If Jesus didn't get caught up on the translation, neither should we! As a Hebrew boy, he studied and learned the Bible in two languages, never doubting it was God's powerful and wonderful Word.
The same applies to the New Testament. The language is not so important as the message. Jesus Christ lived as a man, died on the cross, and rose again, is God, and everyone who believes and repents is saved!!!
It is the gospel, the message of how to be saved and follow Christ that matters, not the age, or whether some dead English king commissioned it or not.
Let's get back to what the Bible is about - it is the revelation of Jesus Christ! Any version that reveals Christ is a good one to read, including the KJV! But it quite simply is not the ONLY translation, nor can you compare it to the originals!
The NLT has changed the meaning of the verse. Compare to the KJV:Blind guides! You strain your water so you won't accidentally swallow a gnat, but you swallow a camel! (Matthew 23:24 NLT)
Well first, God did preserve his Word! That is why there are so many manuscripts, more than any other codice or book in the western world! The KJV is a TRANSLATION, not the original texts!
As for your example of Dan 3:25, I have been reading my Masoretic text.
Dan 3:25 עָנֵ֣ה וְאָמַ֗ר הָֽא־אֲנָ֨ה חָזֵ֜ה גֻּבְרִ֣ין אַרְבְּעָ֗ה שְׁרַ֙יִן֙ מַהְלְכִ֣ין בְּגֹֽוא־נוּרָ֔א וַחֲבָ֖ל לָא־אִיתַ֣י בְּהֹ֑ון וְרֵוֵהּ֙ דִּ֣י דָּמֵ֖ה לְבַר־אֱלָהִֽין׃
Because Hebrew is written left to right, we only need look at the last phrase, which is hyphenated! (first in the phrase!)
it basically says, transliterated, le bar elohin.
Le - to or for (could be like or as)
Bar - son of (when hyphenated)
elohin- gods, noun, masculine, plural, variation with n instead of m ending.
Plus, there is the lack of the word "the" in the Hebrew, which is the word "ha".
Therefore the phrase reads like this - "To/for/as a son of gods"
NOT "like the Son of God"
I looked at many versions, and except for the KJV they all interpret the phrase correctly!
Thanks for your example, as it shows the error in the KJV!
My advice is to take about 4 years, and really learn Koine Greek and Old Testament Hebrew. Once you understand the languages, plus a little bit about the difficulties of translation, you will understand the truth of God's Holy Word - God preserved his Word in the original languages, and KJV is only a translation!