perhaps. but i think they live in terror.
there is the chance that they are in the deluded state john mentioned (sinless). but overall i think they dont believe, and are afraid of God.
then you should be able to prove me incorrect, yet all I see are meaningless assertions with not a shred of evidence. Which is typical of your responses.
You have proven over and over you do not understand scripture at all. only your twisted version of it.
Anyone who states all men are saved is a universalist. there are many types. I guess you are one of them.
Obviously you do not understand what it means in scripture, otherwise you would not be asking the question. Just review all the texts I posted earlier and you will be enlightened.there was only one incarnation. that was God becoming man. so not what sure what that has to do with everyone being saved.
then you have just acknowledged that Christ saved all men from death and sin. It was the penalty of death, the condemnation of death under which all men lived. And yes, He gave life to all men. An eternal existance that was lost through Adam.Yeah I do.
He accomplished the one thing that you and I can never do. He took our penalty in our stted. And because of it, THE OFFER of salvation can be given to all men.
All men were saved from death and sin. All men will be raised on the last day because Christ assumed our mortal human nature and raised it to life. John 6:39 states that none will be lost.Not like you say, and all men are saved.
You are correct, but it is becoming more visible what you don't understand about scripture as it has always meant from the beginning.more attack.. do you have anything real to say, You have no idea what I know and understand..
Really. It is an equation. all die through Adam, all have life through Christ. How can you even believe in a hell or heaven? You just negated the possibility. I Cor 15:17 states quite clearly, unless ALL the dead are raised, ones faith is in vain. It is in vain because Christ would have failed in His mission to defeat death.Well this goes to show you do not have a comprehension of what is said.
In adam all die. Yes this is correct. In Christ, everying is given th eopportunity to be saved.
self incriminating. I am explaining the Gospel as it has always been understood, where man has never made a change to it. You are the one teaching some unknown gospel of some man, maybe even your own.This is what happens when you do not study the word of God, but take bits and peaces of it and form your own (or you believe an already formed) doctrine of men.
It is now that Christ redeemed the world from the bondage to death and sin. Now man is going to be held responsible for his sin. Man is no longer under the condemnation of death through Adam. The gift was life so that all could be given the opportunity to choose or reject Christ. One will enjoy eternal life with Christ for those that believe.The penalty of sin is death, The gift of God is eternal life, to ALL WHO BELIEVE.
Every has the gift. Part of it is to be used in this life, the Sacrifice for sin, the other, the primary work of Christ is that He gave life to the world, so that man and the world will have an eternal existence. The Gift you are offered to recieve is the one to be reunited with God in a personal relationship.If one does not recieve the gift, they are still DEAD. there is NO LIFE. NO LIFE equals no salvation.
What can I say, you have not given any evidence that I am incorrect as yet. You make assertions, but no text to overturn what I cited or what I explained.if you understood this basic fact you would see the flaw in your resoning.
yes, death was the condemnation of Adam's sin. It is the death (mortality) that we inherit by birth, Rom 5:12. And yes, Christ is the LIFE. The gift, Rom 5:14, 18 which is given to ALL MEN. Same as in I Cor 15:22. and why every single human being will be raised from the dead in the last day, John 6:39, Rev 20:13.There are only two states mentioned in scripture.
In Adam, Dead
In Christ, Alive
YOu are absolutely Correct. You will be raised, as every single human being will be raised in the last day to an eternal existence.there is no inbetween, If God saved everyone, then the penalty of death has been removed from everyone, and everyone is already made alive in Christ.
No, we have all men alive with an eternal existance, but the question that needs to be decided is where each will spend eternity, with Christ or apart from HIm. That is why Christ saved the world, so that the purpose of why man was created could be finished, fulfilled.Yet you say salvation does not occure till heaven, thus you have dead people being saved, and given the spirit of God as a guarantee of their inheritance.
Well I will await your scripture that overturns the Incarnation of Christ and what it accomplished. it has not only been held from the beginning, but it is also, along with the Trintity, one of the hallmarks of Christianity.Sorry, but this is wrong.
that is quite unscriptural, since it is one of the basic tenents of belief. Belief in it is what justifies a person to Christ by faith.No I do not.
God created them to be eternal. But as you state in #2 Adam lost eternal existance for all men, even for the world. The world was condemned to decay, corruption and death along with Adam.1. All Men at ALL times have been eternal beings.
correct, actually permanent non-existance since it was dust to dust, Gen 3:19.2. ALL men in adam was deamed to suffer eternal death
that depends on context. ONly those that believe are offered eternal life with Christ.3. Only those in Christ are offered eternal life.
quite the contrary. NOt just life but immortal life and incorruptibility. I Cor 15:53.4. The dead will not be ressurected to life, they will be delivered for judgment, That judgment being eternal death.
Life with Christ. Context in scripture will always point to either all men haveing life, eternal existance, or life with Christ through faith.5. Only those IN CHRIST are promised to be ressurected to life.
I think I have a lot better grasp than you do as it made quite clear in this post. You have a very long way to go on this subject.You do not understand the term spiritul death vs spiritual life. You have tons of more study to do. And I would recomend you study yourself. and stop listening to the men you trust, for they have led you astray in untruths.
From scripture. But we are not speaking about Satan. Satan was also not among those saved through Christ's Incarnation either.Where do you get this stuff from? Hell was created for satan, It was created the moment he fell. Man was never intended to go there, but it was STILL THERE.
You are correct. But it is death, our mortal nature that causes us to sin so easily. The sting of death is sin, I Cor 15:56. But as long as man was condemned through Adam it mattered not what man did, since man was already condemned.Man chose to go their in their rebellion. They do not follow adam there, Adam will not be their, they follow their father satan there.
If you want to stick to some unscriptual teaching then you are correct. But if you want to know what scripture means and has always meant from the beginning you have a very long way to go.study what? There is nothing there to study.
You are the one that needs to learn scripture on this topic. I just explained it to you as all Christians understood it from the beginning.You are the one who needs to study, to learn what spiritual death means, To learn what salvation means, To learn was being made alive IN CHRIST means.
Just some more things on your list to learn correctly, rather than the erroneous ideas you have espoused here.to learn what ressurection means, To learn who will be ressurected and who will not. To learn who will be delivered for judgment, and who has passed from judgment to life.
amen,
yet he deny's his plan is to stand in front of God on his own merit..
And worse yet, is he thinks God will save him based on his merit.
Obviosly you have bankrupted your mantra of proof texts so the next best thing is to create a strawman and knock him down. You have been knocking a lot of them down in this thread.
but the context will tell you what the subject would be.perhaps it was someone else who said
there are works of righteouness and works of merit.
which ones help in your salvation. not works of righteousness we have done according to titus. so...works of merit i guess. merit means you have something to boast about.
I don't mean to sound flippant, but now I actually count 98 Gospels. That's how many times the word "Gospel" is used in the bible. It appears that you used this strategy when you found a new listing, just make it another new Gospel. The very scripture you quoted above says there is not another Gospel.
Regardless what you call it, sin is sin, and this passage says if we do not walk in the light, the blood of Christ will no longer cleanse us
What I simply did in my study is believe what the Holy Bible says and teaches.
The Gospel which the Angel preaches in Rev. 14:6 is concerning God's judgment. It is not the same Gospel that we preach today.
That's why it is important to be dispensational in your study of the Scriptures.
The everlasting Gospel is for the dispensation of the time of Jacob's trouble. It is not for the current dispensation (Church Age) which we operate in Today.
In my Bible it is the same thing.And again; the context is about Fellowship. Not salvation.
Nope. . .You here are contradicting your own thread.
According to what you posted here, one must have works for those works are proof he has been saved. Yet if one has no works, those lack of works proves he is NOT SAVED. In all of your twisting,
you twisted yourself into a self-contradicting knot.
Addressed above in posts #551 and #552.No, dcontroversial was contradicting himself, contradicting his own thread.
Now you posted to me "And, I don't think anyone here is saying not to work."
So is or isn't works necessary to salvation?
Nope. . .that is your deliberate confounding ofHere you post it again...."salvation is evidenced by the works that follow"
So if works do not follow that is evidence one is not saved. Which makes works necessary to salvation.
What in the world does that mean?It is what scripture has always meant.
Read what I posted earlier. Love thy neighbour as thyself explains that, In MAtthew 5 Jesus talked about things on it, etc. etc. Read the Bible.
Also, if you are correct [even though you know you are wrong, we went through this before], then explain. Was The commandment tablets literal or spiritual? Did they really exist? Or was adam really spirtiual and not real, or the Garden of Eden just spiritual and not a real place... Come on Dude, seriously? Besides I already refuted you before, why do we have to go through this again for a second time? Especially when you reposted your corinthians quote after I showed you its true meaning.
P.S.:
If I say I have been saved, then I am saying I have true faith,
for only true faith automatically saves without works.
And if I have true faith, then I will be obeying, for true faith obeys.
If I say I am saved, but I am not obeying, I show that I have counterfeit faith, not true faith.
Counterfeit faith does not save.
So if I say I am saved, but show that my faith is counterfeit, then I am deceived, and am not saved.
You confound true faith vs. counterfeit faith with. . .to be saved vs. have been saved.
Biblical Principle #3:
Works are not necessary TO BE SAVED,
works only show that I HAVE BEEN SAVED by a true faith.
These are what you misunderstand and confound
to arrive at your false, twice-condemned gospel (Gal 1:6-9).
Please do not make it necessary to explain these to you again.
No, the refusal to understand is yours.Hi,
Here is the issue some do not or just refuse to understand.......
free gifts (salvation) can come with conditions (belief, repentance, confession and baptism) and meeting those condtions do NOT earn the free gift.
NO, it has always had the same meaning, the same meaning as given to the Apostles originally. The Gospel was given Once to the saints. It has not changed since that beginning. Because it has never changed we can very easily today, 2000 years later, check against false teachings. A false teaching, always of men, have all originated after the Original Gospel.What in the world does that mean?
That "Scripture has always meant" something other than what it states?
yes, it does. It always has had ONE meaning, the Original meaning.That is absurd!
"Scripture has always meant" exactly what it states.
I am, but you are espousing a theory that originated by a man, Luther, at the Reformation 1500 years after the Original was given.And what it states is what we are discussing.
Yes, Christ as Head over His Church, and the Holy Spirit whose purpose is to guard both the Body of Christ and the Gospel entrusted to it. The Church is the ground and pillar of Truth, I Tim 3:15. He guards it against false teachings that it does not teach.Are you proposing an authority higher than Scripture which can authorize what Scripture does not state?
You can argue with the Head, Christ. He seems to have a much different persective than your unscriptual principle of "sola scriptura".Your religion is contra-Biblical and false.
There are four Gospels. NOT just one.
Study your Bible. And believe what it teaches.
The context is fellowship. Read the whole passage.
The cleansing from sin is for fellowship. The main purpose and reason why a Christian should confess their sins is so that they will maintain good fellowship with the Lord while on this Earth.
When one gets saved, all their sins have been paid for and taken away. And they are given a new nature. They become a new creature in Christ (2 Cor. 5:17).
But because the Christian still has an old nature (the flesh), at times the Christian may fall into sin, and so these sins which a Christian may commit in his life, is what some call the sins of the saints. A sin which a saint commits needs and must be confessed if that born again child of God wants to maintain good, close and intimate fellowship with God the Father while on this earth, and also with other belivers.