Given that the law ended at the cross.
Given that it was only for Israel.
Given that the law is one and a unity.
Given that all scripture has application for us, if not interpretation to us.
Given that the law does yet contain some universal principles, applicable to all times and peoples (like Love God and Love neighbor as self, Leviticus)
how do we know what is to be obeyed today by the Church?
How then do we distinguish the dispensational from the universal?
You don't want to sacrifice animals (dispensational).
You do want to love neighbor as self (universal).
How do we distinguish the two?
For starters, the default is that is only for Israel, this follows from its end at the cross where the Law was nailed.
How then is an exception indicated?
1) If the commandment is repeated to the Church, then it is not just for Israel.
2) If the commandment is followed by a statement that the Lord punished the heathen (not Israel) for doing the forbidden practice, it follows that the rule is universal.
Example, in Lev 18 there is a long list of sexual sins. At the end of it Israel is warned that the Lord expelled the former (heathen) nations for having done these things. Thus we conclude that those sins are sins today, sins for all people (as contrasted with eating shell fish).
3) If the commandment is based upon the nature of God, then it is for all:
" be ye holy; for I am holy."
Are there any other principles by which to distinguish the dispensational laws from the eternal principles of righteousness included in the law?
Given that it was only for Israel.
Given that the law is one and a unity.
Given that all scripture has application for us, if not interpretation to us.
Given that the law does yet contain some universal principles, applicable to all times and peoples (like Love God and Love neighbor as self, Leviticus)
how do we know what is to be obeyed today by the Church?
How then do we distinguish the dispensational from the universal?
You don't want to sacrifice animals (dispensational).
You do want to love neighbor as self (universal).
How do we distinguish the two?
For starters, the default is that is only for Israel, this follows from its end at the cross where the Law was nailed.
How then is an exception indicated?
1) If the commandment is repeated to the Church, then it is not just for Israel.
2) If the commandment is followed by a statement that the Lord punished the heathen (not Israel) for doing the forbidden practice, it follows that the rule is universal.
Example, in Lev 18 there is a long list of sexual sins. At the end of it Israel is warned that the Lord expelled the former (heathen) nations for having done these things. Thus we conclude that those sins are sins today, sins for all people (as contrasted with eating shell fish).
3) If the commandment is based upon the nature of God, then it is for all:
" be ye holy; for I am holy."
Are there any other principles by which to distinguish the dispensational laws from the eternal principles of righteousness included in the law?