Did God Tell Hosea to Marry a Prostitute?

[shrimp]

You are right. In paganism, there is a link between prostitution and idolatry: prostitution was part of the rituals of idol worshiping.
The book of Hosea must be understood allegorically/prophetically and not literally...

Not what I meant, but if you want to take it that way that works, too.
What I meant was that sin is sin is sin. Too often we put a grade on certain sins. God didn't do that. That's why, when God talks about a sin, we often try to make it a different sin, because we think the original sin was too bad. We can't seem to take God at His word or change ourselves to see sin as it is.
Whoredom with sex is equally as bad as whoredom with idols. THAT is why God didn't specify either way what kind of whore she was. All He said was marry her.

 

[JaumeJ]

Pagainism? The Bible constantly makes reference to whoredom as being idolatry. Not to mention the Great Harlot sitting on seven hills spoken of in Revelation.

When believers turn from their Husband, God, to worship idols, that is things made with human hands, this is playing the whore. Stay away from such, and remain in the living God, amen.

You are right. In paganism, there is a link between prostitution and idolatry: prostitution was part of the rituals of idol worshiping.
The book of Hosea must be understood allegorically/prophetically and not literally...

 

[notuptome]

You are right. In paganism, there is a link between prostitution and idolatry: prostitution was part of the rituals of idol worshiping.
The book of Hosea must be understood allegorically/prophetically and not literally...

Take all parts of the bible literally except those parts that cannot be taken literally. Hosea lends itself to a literal interpretation quite readily. Some just don't like the implications of the literal interpretation. The bible must be taken as a whole and not a pick and choose what we like.

I'm always concerned when we begin to change what we don't like in the bible to make it more palatable to our earthly senses.

For the cause of Christ
Roger

 

[Agricola]

This thread demonstrates perfectly how ENglish is not perfect langauge, let alone 1611 English, numerous meanings for same word which to natural speakers of say Hebrew make perfect sense in the context and relation to other words and the grammar rules of that language, which can not be conveyed properly in translation, no matter how good the translation is.

This is why we end up with so much pedantic discussion.

 

[The_highwayman]

And you must not put James Strong and his many friends who created the Strong's Concordance before Jesus Christ. You must also not put Greek scholars and your own thinking that you know Greek (When you really do not) before Jesus Christ. For only Paul and the apostles who had written the New Testament knew Biblical Greek. Nobody today really knows it with 100% certainty.

Are you by chance Church of Christ?

 

[The_highwayman]

I mean, see how touchy this issue is with people? If it really didn't matter, then you would have moved on by now. But folks know it is wrong (deep down) to say that God told Hosea to marry a prostitute. Just as it is wrong to say that Jesus made people tipsy or drunk at wedding party with one of his miracles. God is good and He is not evil. However, many people here have everything backwards, though.

Dude, please stick to milk, and leave meat to the rest of us....

 

[Simona25]

Take all parts of the bible literally except those parts that cannot be taken literally. Hosea lends itself to a literal interpretation quite readily. Some just don't like the implications of the literal interpretation. The bible must be taken as a whole and not a pick and choose what we like.

I'm always concerned when we begin to change what we don't like in the bible to make it more palatable to our earthly senses.

For the cause of Christ
Roger

Indeed. The Bible must be understood on all levels (which I do not) and we mustn't abandon the literal/historical meaning in favor of the symbolical/allegorical ones (something that I do too often).

 

[posthuman]

But folks know it is wrong (deep down) to say that God told Hosea to marry a prostitute.

i know it is wrong (deep down) to reject what the scripture plainly says, and to re-write it according to your own moral standard.

This is what I would call biased reading.

what i would call "biased reading" is holding your own intellect and ethic higher than the Word of God.
when you come to the scripture with your own prejudices (i.e. a prostitute cannot be loved, forgiven, shown grace or even associated with, or alcohol is inherently evil) and you find that they don't match up with the plain speech of the Book, so you go to great lengths to conform what is written with what you think it ought to say -- that is "biased reading"

T
Now, if you believe it isn't wrong for God to tell Hosea to marry a prostitute, then you need to show us in Scripture how it is not wrong on a moral level.

no, i don't need to justify God. He is the I AM THAT I AM -- and He doesn't need to measure up to my standards; i need to measure up to His.

but have a look at this, so the light may be glorified:

"..For your Maker is your husband,
the Lord of hosts is his name;
and the Holy One of Israel is your Redeemer,
the God of the whole earth he is called.
For the Lord has called you
like a wife deserted and grieved in spirit,
like a wife of youth when she is cast off,
says your God.
For a brief moment I deserted you,
but with great compassion I will gather you.
In overflowing anger for a moment
I hid my face from you,
but with everlasting love I will have compassion on you,”
says the Lord, your Redeemer.
(Isaiah 54:5-8)

the LORD is Israel's husband. He cast her off for a moment, but having pity and mercy, takes her back to Himself.

why cast her off?

for all the adulteries of that faithless one, Israel, I had sent her away with a decree of divorce.
(Jeremiah 3:8)

because she is a prostitute. now what does the holy God say to this whore, Israel?

Return, faithless Israel,
declares the LORD.
I will not look on you in anger,
for I am merciful,
declares the LORD;
I will not be angry forever.
Only acknowledge your guilt,
that you rebelled against the LORD your God
and scattered your favors among foreigners under every green tree,
and that you have not obeyed my voice,
declares the LORD.
(Jeremiah 3:12-13)

now the LORD says He Himself took a whore to be His wife, and she was unfaithful, and He offers her grace and mercy if she would return to Him. He sent His son to pay the blood price to buy her back from her pimp!

you and i both better hope that God is gracious enough to have pity and compassion for a whore, enough that He is willing to take such a one unto His own, or our hope of salvation is void -- because i wager both you and i are ever bit as guilty as Israel!

can you see this?
YOUR salvation depends on the hope that God is willing to forgive a whore, to love a prostitute, and to show mercy and grace to an unfaithful trollop -- because that is what WE are!

 

[Nick01]

This is what I would call biased reading. Three times the word "whoredoms" appears in the verse (for three different things) that all relate to each other.

Hosea 1:2
"The beginning of the word of the LORD by Hosea. And the LORD said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of whoredoms and children of whoredoms: for the land hath committed great whoredom, departing from the LORD."

Let's break this down and replace it with a different word that is similar. The Lord said to Hosea,

#1. Take unto thee a wife of __(idolatry)___.
#2. and children of ___(idolatry)_____.
#3. for the land hath committed great ___(idol worship)___, departing from the Lord.

See how the sentence makes sense?

Now, lets try this with your version and insert a completely different word altogether.

#1. Take unto thee a wife of __(sad clowns)___.
#2. and children of ___(sadness)____.
#3. for the land hath committed great ___(sorrow)___, departing from the Lord.

*sigh*. This whole discussion at this point is probably not worth the number of pages spent. I'll make this my last post on the topic, especially as you've basically ignored most of my post (the other OT uses of the word 'whoredoms' and the use of real events in the life of Hosea to illustrate non-literal, spiritual realities about Israel are absolutely CRITICAL to this discussion, but you engaged with precisely none of that). I simply can't take your accusation of 'bias' seriously when you don't actually tell me why I'm wrong on those points.

To the rest of what you post (by far the most minor aspect of the discussion), I really don't understand what point you're trying to make. I'm not debating what words should be there. The word whoredom is there in all three points, as you point out. What I'm saying is that the phrase 'children of x' in English can suggest an entirely different thing to 'wife of x', in terms of whether the children were themselves whores or not.

The fact that something is of something else (x of y), in English, does not magically mean that all 'of' relationships function the same way, just because the grammar is constructed in the same way. The 'child of someone' entails something very different to the killer of someone, for instance. Just because the expression 'wife of prostitution/promiscuity/whoredoms' basically means 'whore' does not mean 'children of whoredoms' also means 'whores'. It can simply mean they are the issue of promiscuity, and so are tainted by it.

But, to the main point of the article, I can't put it any more clearly than Hosea 3:1:

3 Then said the Lord unto me, Go yet, love a woman beloved of her friend, yet an adulteress, according to the love of the Lord toward the children of Israel, who look to other gods, and love flagons of wine.

Adultery/promiscuity/etc is EXPLICITLY being used as a metaphor for Israel's non sexual idolatry.

Peace out.

 

[Apostol2013]

FAIL

[SUP]2 [/SUP]The beginning of the word of the Lord by Hosea. And the Lord said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of whoredoms and children of whoredoms: for the land hath committed great whoredom, departing from the Lord

God did not say "Go and pay for sex and endulge yourself in the pleasures of a woman" HE said "GO AND TAKE A WIFE". So how can interpret that to mean "Go and have sex with a prostitute?"

Hosea would have abstained from any sexual activity until he was married. It is obvious to most people, but then cultists are not most normal people, they are blind and will say anything to defend the cults position, just as you are doing Jason.

Well yes a wife of whodedom , meaning unfaithful israel of israel not literal prostitute but many today are whores for they endulge with many lovers , many sins a sinfull life an opposite of what jesus came to do

 

[Agricola]

I mean, see how touchy this issue is with people? If it really didn't matter, then you would have moved on by now. But folks know it is wrong (deep down) to say that God told Hosea to marry a prostitute. Just as it is wrong to say that Jesus made people tipsy or drunk at wedding party with one of his miracles. God is good and He is not evil. However, many people here have everything backwards, though.

SERIOUSLY?

I can quote that directly back at you. THe only person who seems to be struggling hard to prove a point is yourself, again you are claiming that you are right and everyone else is wrong, this is another tactic I hate with cults like the one you have pledge allegiance to.

Why don't you just let this drop yourself Jason? Why can't you accept that the word used is prostitute and adulterer? You should watch yourself in speaking for God. God is God and does things beyond our understanding, if God told his prophet to take a prostitute for a wife, then God has his reasons, just as God has his reasons for telling his kings to commit genocide, or why God allows bad stuff to burden a persons life.

 

[Jason0047]

Are you by chance Church of Christ?

No, I am non-demoninational and just believe in the Bible as my final Word of authority. I do not agree with the Church of Christ's legalistic stand on salvation (like their wrong stand on baptismal salvation). Although I believe good works must be present in a believer's life to show their faith is true or not, I do not believe works actually save you. I believe works flow out of salvation; And salvation is a person named Jesus Christ. For he that has the Son has life and he who does not have the Son does not have life (1 John 5:12). So salvation is abiding in Christ which will naturally result in the fruits of the Spirit. No fruit means no proof of God is living in your life. And God is the source of salvation.

 

[Jason0047]

Okay, if everyone believes God told Hosea to marry a prostitute (Which is no doubt influenced by their reading of that verse in Modern Translations), then please explain to me the morality behind such an action. I don't see it as being moral and good. Please help explain it to me using the Scriptures of how such a thing can be good.

In other words, I believe people are doing gymnastics with the definition of the words involved and are not really thinking with their heart and or what is morally correct. Explain to me how God telling Hosea to marry a prostitute is a good thing?

For what fellowship does light have with darkness?

 

[Jason0047]

i know it is wrong (deep down) to reject what the scripture plainly says, and to re-write it according to your own moral standard.



what i would call "biased reading" is holding your own intellect and ethic higher than the Word of God.
when you come to the scripture with your own prejudices (i.e. a prostitute cannot be loved, forgiven, shown grace or even associated with, or alcohol is inherently evil) and you find that they don't match up with the plain speech of the Book, so you go to great lengths to conform what is written with what you think it ought to say -- that is "biased reading"



no, i don't need to justify God. He is the I AM THAT I AM -- and He doesn't need to measure up to my standards; i need to measure up to His.

but have a look at this, so the light may be glorified:

"..For your Maker is your husband,
the Lord of hosts is his name;
and the Holy One of Israel is your Redeemer,
the God of the whole earth he is called.
For the Lord has called you
like a wife deserted and grieved in spirit,
like a wife of youth when she is cast off,
says your God.
For a brief moment I deserted you,
but with great compassion I will gather you.
In overflowing anger for a moment
I hid my face from you,
but with everlasting love I will have compassion on you,”
says the Lord, your Redeemer.
(Isaiah 54:5-8)

the LORD is Israel's husband. He cast her off for a moment, but having pity and mercy, takes her back to Himself.

why cast her off?

for all the adulteries of that faithless one, Israel, I had sent her away with a decree of divorce.
(Jeremiah 3:8)

because she is a prostitute. now what does the holy God say to this whore, Israel?

Return, faithless Israel,
declares the LORD.
I will not look on you in anger,
for I am merciful,
declares the LORD;
I will not be angry forever.
Only acknowledge your guilt,
that you rebelled against the LORD your God
and scattered your favors among foreigners under every green tree,
and that you have not obeyed my voice,
declares the LORD.
(Jeremiah 3:12-13)

now the LORD says He Himself took a whore to be His wife, and she was unfaithful, and He offers her grace and mercy if she would return to Him. He sent His son to pay the blood price to buy her back from her pimp!

you and i both better hope that God is gracious enough to have pity and compassion for a whore, enough that He is willing to take such a one unto His own, or our hope of salvation is void -- because i wager both you and i are ever bit as guilty as Israel!

can you see this?
YOUR salvation depends on the hope that God is willing to forgive a whore, to love a prostitute, and to show mercy and grace to an unfaithful trollop -- because that is what WE are!

So you expect God wants me to shut off my moral compass when I read His Word? Can you explain to me the morality behind God's decision to tell Hosea to marry a prostitute?

 

[The_highwayman]

So you expect God wants me to shut off my moral compass when I read His Word? Can you explain to me the morality behind God's decision to tell Hosea to marry a prostitute?

Duh....many have tried but you wont listen, give it up

 

[Fishbait]

So you expect God wants me to shut off my moral compass when I read His Word? Can you explain to me the morality behind God's decision to tell Hosea to marry a prostitute?

God doesn't want you to shut off your moral compass when you read His word. Unless He commands you to.

The prophet Hosea was commanded to marry an unfaithful wife, and this set up a model of Israel’s broken relationship with God. Israel had been chosen and loved by God yet had been unfaithful to Him by way of idolatry. Just as Hosea redeemed his estranged wife and sought to continue his relationship with her, God promised to redeem Israel and renew their relationship with Him. The story of Hosea and Gomer is an unforgettable picture of God’s strong, unending love for His covenant people.

Read more: Why did God tell Hosea to marry a prostitute (Hosea 1:2)?

 

[TheAristocat]

[TABLE="class: tborder, width: 100%, align: center"]
[TR]
[TD="class: alt1, bgcolor: #F6F6F6"]Did God Really Tell Hosea to Marry a Prostitute?

According to Hosea 1:2: Many well intentioned Christians believe God told Hosea to marry a prostitute. However, is this true?

Well, to entertain such an idea that the Lord our God would send a specific command to one of His prophets to indulge in an act of fornication with a prostitute is not only wrong but it does not make any logical sense. For there are two very important facts a person has to ignore when they believe such a thing.

#1. A person has to Ignore God's Holy and righteous character. For haven't we read within the Scriptures that say: "Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man" (James 1:13).

#2. A person has to ignore just how horrific the sinful act of fornication is bodily and the false worship of idolatry actually is.

Should we believe that the Lord would force a holy man of God into committing this despicable act with a prostitute (i.e. fornication) for the purpose of reproving the abominations of others? How could Hosea be the instrument for exposing & punishing the sin of Israel when He would be just as guilty as they? Where is the wisdom in this, as the means for Israel to change?

I believe part of the problem lies within the translation of Modern Versions. Some of them flat out say that the Lord told Hosea to marry a prostitute. This would include the New International Version (NIV), New Language Translation (NLT), God's Word (2003), and the Webster's Bible Translation to name just a few.

However, according to the King James (1769 Edition) in Hosea 1:2 it says:

"The beginning of the word of the LORD by Hosea. And the LORD said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of whoredoms and children of whoredoms: for the land hath committed great whoredom, departing from the LORD."

At dictionary.com the word "whoredoms" refers to "idolatry". So if we were to re-read this verse with the word idolatry instead. The verse becomes a lot clearer.

"The beginning of the word of the LORD by Hosea. And the LORD said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of idolatry and children of idolatry: for the land hath committed great idolatry, departing from the LORD." ~ (Hosea 1:2)

Doesn't the truth make more sense when you interpret it correctly?
Do you agree?

...[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]

The Torah does condemn prostitution, fornication and adultery. But it does not explicitly condemn marrying someone who has had sex with others in their past. That is not considered fornication. It does, however, condemn one's spouse being separated, marrying another person, being separated again and then marrying their original spouse. I think it calls that polluting the land.

That said, it would probably be wiser not to marry a prostitute (look what happened with Gomer - she committed adultery after she was married to Hosea). But that was in no way a blemish on Hosea's record. He forgave her and took her back as God commanded.

 

[Jason0047]

​

Duh....many have tried but you wont listen, give it up

I am willing to listen. Please explain their words to me again in as few sentences as possible (using Scripture) as to an answer behind the morality of God's decision of telling Hosea to marry a prostitute. Do you think God's morality changes with the passage of time? Does not God's Word tell us today to not have fellowship with unbelievers? For how does the NT verse that asks the question, what fellowship has light with darkness?

 

[Jason0047]

The Torah does condemn prostitution, fornication and adultery. But it does not explicitly condemn marrying someone who has had sex with others in their past. That is not considered fornication. It does, however, condemn one's spouse being separated, marrying another person, being separated again and then marrying their original spouse. I think it calls that polluting the land.

That said, it would probably be wiser not to marry a prostitute (look what happened with Gomer - she committed adultery after she was married to Hosea). But that was in no way a blemish on Hosea's record. He forgave her and took her back as God commanded.

I believe Rahab was a prostitute and had married an Israelite. However, the key difference here is that Rahab had most certainly repented of her life of prostitution by joining the Israelites. God telling someone to marry someone who is currently practicing prostitution is wrong. For what fellowship has light with darkness?

 

[Jason0047]

God doesn't want you to shut off your moral compass when you read His word. Unless He commands you to.

What kind of statement is that? Are you telling me God would actually tell me to shut off my moral compass and do something that I know to be sinful or evil? That's just wrong.

For Abraham was not asked to murder his son. Abraham KNEW that his son was going to be resurrected by God if he sacrificed Isaac. Granted, God had other plans in that situation, but God did not tell Abraham to do something wrong or evil.

The prophet Hosea was commanded to marry an unfaithful wife, and this set up a model of Israel’s broken relationship with God. Israel had been chosen and loved by God yet had been unfaithful to Him by way of idolatry. Just as Hosea redeemed his estranged wife and sought to continue his relationship with her, God promised to redeem Israel and renew their relationship with Him. The story of Hosea and Gomer is an unforgettable picture of God’s strong, unending love for His covenant people.

Read more: Why did God tell Hosea to marry a prostitute (Hosea 1:2)?

First, the parallel does not work because Israel was not initially unfaithful in their beginning marriage or relationship to God. Second, the parallel is no excuse or a real answer to the morality of the issue. It is a smoke screen to cover up the fact that God can tell people to do evil things. This is wrong.