Did God Tell Hosea to Marry a Prostitute?

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
Jul 22, 2014
10,350
51
0
The message is as it is written. Just read it as it is.

Hosea lived in the later days of the divided kingdoms of Israel and Judah. Just a little bit before the captivity by Babylon. It is possible Hosea may have even lived in the early days of the enslavement. Again, how those days were, is this not written in the Books of Kings and Chronicles?

Yes it does explain the moral issue. The moral issue is Hosea obeyed God as a prophet of God and did what he was told directly by God to give a prophecy from God to the people of his time and after. There is no sin in Hosea therefore there is no sin in God therefore the command and prophecy stands forever.
Yes, your view on Hosea 1:2 contradicts what God teaches elsewhere in Scripture. While the Law of Moses is done away with in Jesus Christ, there still exists moral laws (of love) under the New Testament. In other words, God's morality on doing what is right and good in any given situation does not change. In the New Testament, God says that we are not to have fellowship with unbelievers. For what fellowship does light have with darkness. If a person is prostituting themselves, they are not saved and they are an unbeliever and are still in darkness (See the Condemnation in John 3:19-21).

Paul says in 1st Corinthians 6 that we are not to be joined to an harlot. Was Paul lying or preaching about another God?
 
Last edited:
Jul 22, 2014
10,350
51
0

here's the moral issue:
we don't deserve Grace, but it is poured out to us like water!!
There is no grace if somebody doesn't repent of their sins. There is no grace if a person serves a God whereby they believe He can tell people to do evil on occasion. God is good. He is not evil.
 
Dec 18, 2013
6,733
45
0
Yes, your view on Hosea 1:2 contradicts what God teaches elsewhere in Scripture. While the Law of Moses is done away with in Jesus Christ, there still exists moral laws (of love) under the New Testament. In other words, God's morality on doing what is right and good in any given situation does not change. In the New Testament, God says that we are not to have fellowship with unbelievers. For what fellowship does light have with darkness. If a person is prostituting themselves, they are not saved and they are an unbeliever and are still in darkness (See the Condemnation in John 3:19-21).

Paul says in 1st Corinthians 6 that we are not to be joined to an harlot. Was Paul lying or preaching about another God?
Paul asks you in his letter to the Corinthians if you do not know that those that join with a harlot are made one with her. For it is as written the two become one.
 
May 15, 2013
4,307
27
0
Yes, your view on Hosea 1:2 contradicts what God teaches elsewhere in Scripture. While the Law of Moses is done away with in Jesus Christ, there still exists moral laws (of love) under the New Testament. In other words, God's morality on doing what is right and good in any given situation does not change. In the New Testament, God says that we are not to have fellowship with unbelievers. For what fellowship does light have with darkness. If a person is prostituting themselves, they are not saved and they are an unbeliever and are still in darkness (See the Condemnation in John 3:19-21).

Paul says in 1st Corinthians 6 that we are not to be joined to an harlot. Was Paul lying or preaching about another God?


Matthew 1:5 Salmon the father of Boaz, whose mother was Rahab, Boaz the father of Obed, whose mother was Ruth, Obed the father of Jesse,

James 2:25 In the same way, was not even Rahab the prostitute considered righteous for what she did when she gave lodging to the spies and sent them off in a different direction?

 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
37,844
13,558
113
I don't believe she was an idolater. She was of a people who were labeled as idolaters. Big difference.
that's a very big difference indeed!
doesn't that understanding also make Hosea and every other Jew, including our Lord a "man of whoredom" ??

 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
37,844
13,558
113

did you hear about Hosea?
the prophet?​
yeah
no - what?​
he married a whore!
no way!​
sure enough
that can't possibly be true, i bet you heard wrong​
no really, they say it's a sign
because we've played the harlot before God with our Ashera poles.
you're joking!​
nope, that's what they say
we're not that bad of a people.
he probably just married a good Israelite woman
and said that because her cooking is poor.​
dude, you're not taking this seriously.
i am! i just can't believe he would marry a harlot,
i thought he was a righteous guy​
Gomer's the harlot, not Hosea
true.
well, i hope he loves her.
you know she's just going to go back to her pimp sooner or later​
*sigh* i think that's the point.
 
Jul 22, 2014
10,350
51
0

did you hear about Hosea?
the prophet?​
yeah
no - what?​
he married a whore!
no way!​
sure enough
that can't possibly be true, i bet you heard wrong​
no really, they say it's a sign
because we've played the harlot before God with our Ashera poles.
you're joking!​
nope, that's what they say
we're not that bad of a people.
he probably just married a good Israelite woman
and said that because her cooking is poor.​
dude, you're not taking this seriously.
i am! i just can't believe he would marry a harlot,
i thought he was a righteous guy​
Gomer's the harlot, not Hosea
true.
well, i hope he loves her.
you know she's just going to go back to her pimp sooner or later​
*sigh* i think that's the point.
So how exactly is this an explanation of the morality behind why God telling Hosea to marry a prostitute?
 
Jul 22, 2014
10,350
51
0
that's a very big difference indeed!
doesn't that understanding also make Hosea and every other Jew, including our Lord a "man of whoredom" ??
She was a woman of a people of whoredoms or idolatery. Jesus who knew no sin was made to be sin for us.
 
Jul 22, 2014
10,350
51
0
Matthew 1:5 Salmon the father of Boaz, whose mother was Rahab, Boaz the father of Obed, whose mother was Ruth, Obed the father of Jesse,

James 2:25 In the same way, was not even Rahab the prostitute considered righteous for what she did when she gave lodging to the spies and sent them off in a different direction?

I already mentioned Rahab before. Rahab was not a practicing prostitute when she married. For as you pointed out she did that which was right and pleasing before the Lord. But folks are not saved if they are still practicing a sinful life style, though. That is why God did not tell Hosea to marry a prostitute? Did Gomer later become a prostitute? Yes when they were already married. Not before. Therein lies the difference.
 
Jul 22, 2014
10,350
51
0
Paul asks you in his letter to the Corinthians if you do not know that those that join with a harlot are made one with her. For it is as written the two become one.
Oh, I am not doubting that a person can be joined with an harlot (i.e. the two can be one flesh). What Paul was saying is that they SHOULD NOT join together. Just as we are not to have fellowship with an unbeliever. See, God's sense of what is good and right (i.e. the moral law) does not change. If it is wrong today for a believer to marry an unbelieving prostitute, then it would be wrong back then. That's what folks are not getting here.
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
37,844
13,558
113
So how exactly is this an explanation of the morality behind why God telling Hosea to marry a prostitute?
it's not that. it's only a one act play i wrote called "מחכה לגוד" that i wanted to share. forgive me; i guess i should have put it in the poetry section of the forum.

She was a woman of a people of whoredoms or idolatery. Jesus who knew no sin was made to be sin for us.
if every Israelitess was a woman of זָנוּן why didn't God say "marry someone" instead of "marry a whore" ?
don't you think He meant for His prophet to emphasize the word
זָנוּן ?

 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
37,844
13,558
113
But folks are not saved if they are still practicing a sinful life style, though. That is why God did not tell Hosea to marry a prostitute?
yeah Israel was not exactly "right with God" during Hosea's ministry, if i understand correctly.
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
37,844
13,558
113
Oh, I am not doubting that a person can be joined with an harlot (i.e. the two can be one flesh). What Paul was saying is that they SHOULD NOT join together. Just as we are not to have fellowship with an unbeliever. See, God's sense of what is good and right (i.e. the moral law) does not change. If it is wrong today for a believer to marry an unbelieving prostitute, then it would be wrong back then. That's what folks are not getting here.
"join with an harlot" is one thing; take one as a wife is another. the latter is what Hosea did. as He was commanded. as a sign of what the Lord did. the Lord is faithful, humans are not.

aren't you exceedingly glad that He shows mercy to those whose faithfulness is weak???
 
Jul 22, 2014
10,350
51
0
it's not that. it's only a one act play i wrote called "מחכה לגוד" that i wanted to share. forgive me; i guess i should have put it in the poetry section of the forum.


That is not what I am concerned about. I am concerned about people believing that the Lord our God could ever possibly tell someone to do something bad or immoral.

if every Israelitess was a woman of זָנוּן why didn't God say "marry someone" instead of "marry a whore" ?
don't you think He meant for His prophet to emphasize the word
זָנוּן ?
He didn't say that. He said to take a wife of a "people of whoredoms" because Hosea 1:2 says that the land committed great whoredom departing from the Lord. The "land" is in reference to people. That doesn't mean everyone in the entire land departed from the Lord. It is speaking of the majority of the population of that area.

For if God did tell Hosea to marry a prostitute, then why does God change His mind later and say that we are not to have fellowship with unbelievers? For what fellowship does light have with darkness?
 
Jul 22, 2014
10,350
51
0
"join with an harlot" is one thing; take one as a wife is another. the latter is what Hosea did. as He was commanded. as a sign of what the Lord did. the Lord is faithful, humans are not.

aren't you exceedingly glad that He shows mercy to those whose faithfulness is weak???
No, Paul was not in support of the idea of joining with an harlot or to fornicate. If Hosea married a woman who fornicated or was sexually joined with other men, then it would be destroying the whole model of what marriage is supposed to stand for (i.e. the Two shall be one flesh). But in this instance, it was a woman (Who was joined with many men) to join with another man in marriage (i.e. Hosea).
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
37,844
13,558
113
He didn't say that. He said to take a wife of a "people of whoredoms"

you are mistaken. the scripture plainly reads "
go take to you a wife of prostitutions"
not 'a wife of a people of prositutions'

have a look at the interlinear; i can't read Hebrew but i'm not completely blind
--
Hosea 1:2 Interlinear
the word for "a people" is not even in that verse.


do you have a hard time personally loving prostitutes or promiscuous women?
 
Jul 22, 2014
10,350
51
0
If she repented and turned away from her prostitution (Like Rahab), then that would be different.
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
37,844
13,558
113
If she repented and turned away from her prostitution (Like Rahab), then that would be different.
right, then maybe us gentiles would never have been shown grace. Romans 11.

(we are talking about Israel, right?) ;)
 
Jul 22, 2014
10,350
51
0

you are mistaken. the scripture plainly reads "
go take to you a wife of prostitutions"
not 'a wife of a people of prositutions'

have a look at the interlinear; i can't read Hebrew but i'm not completely blind
--
Hosea 1:2 Interlinear
the word for "a people" is not even in that verse.


do you have a hard time personally loving prostitutes or promiscuous women?
Your not getting it, my friend. The latter half of the verse fills in that detail when it says FOR (i.e. Because) the land hath committed great whoredom departing from the Lord.
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
37,844
13,558
113
No, Paul was not in support of the idea of joining with an harlot or to fornicate. If Hosea married a woman who fornicated or was sexually joined with other men, then it would be destroying the whole model of what marriage is supposed to stand for (i.e. the Two shall be one flesh). But in this instance, it was a woman (Who was joined with many men) to join with another man in marriage (i.e. Hosea).

guess who broke the covenant, God or Israel?

guess who was unfaithful, Hosea or Gomer?

now you're catching on :)