The message is as it is written. Just read it as it is.
Hosea lived in the later days of the divided kingdoms of Israel and Judah. Just a little bit before the captivity by Babylon. It is possible Hosea may have even lived in the early days of the enslavement. Again, how those days were, is this not written in the Books of Kings and Chronicles?
Yes it does explain the moral issue. The moral issue is Hosea obeyed God as a prophet of God and did what he was told directly by God to give a prophecy from God to the people of his time and after. There is no sin in Hosea therefore there is no sin in God therefore the command and prophecy stands forever.
Yes, your view on Hosea 1:2 contradicts what God teaches elsewhere in Scripture. While the Law of Moses is done away with in Jesus Christ, there still exists moral laws (of love) under the New Testament. In other words, God's morality on doing what is right and good in any given situation does not change. In the New Testament, God says that we are not to have fellowship with unbelievers. For what fellowship does light have with darkness. If a person is prostituting themselves, they are not saved and they are an unbeliever and are still in darkness (See the Condemnation in John 3:19-21).
Paul says in 1st Corinthians 6 that we are not to be joined to an harlot. Was Paul lying or preaching about another God?
Last edited: