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Cup-of-Ruin
Guest
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1 Timothy 2:3 This is good, and pleases God our Savior, 4 who wants all men to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth
God wants ALL to be saved, and yet, only predestines some to be saved. I understand that God can want something to happen and yet let something else happen.
Also, I understand that the concept of "fairness" doesn't apply here, as, if God were to be completely fair, all would go to hell and none would be saved. God has given a gift to those he has chosen.
What I don't understand is, how can the unsaved not be predestined to hell, if the saved, or elect, are predestined to be saved?
1 Tim. 2:3-4 "For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour, Who WILL have all men to be saved, and come unto the knowledge of the truth." KJV.
It does not say 'want' it says 'will', we know that all men will not be saved, because not all men will confess Christ and believe the Gospel, so is this a contradiction? No, how do we read this? Well God's WILL is the factor in the salvation of all men, no man comes to the Son lest the Father draw him, this is what Jesus said.
How do I know the word is 'will' and not 'wants', because Paul uses the same Greek word in 1 Tim. 2:8 "I WILL therefore that men pray everywhere." or go to Rom. 1:10 " a prosperous journey by the WILL of God to come unto you."
Most good English translations have it this way, whatever translation you quoted is incorrect, it should read that God wills all men to be saved, which is true, He does will all men to be saved, when saved this is by the will of God, according to His goodwill and pleasure.