The fruit of the King James speaks for itself. You know, the KJV was the Bible for a really really long time before the Modern Translations came onto the scene. Also, you are twisting the context of what is being said. My debating it is not going to help you. Other good believers understand what the Pre-face actually says.
Read it here:
PREFACE TO THE 1611 KING JAMES BIBLE
See, the problem I have with your position on the Word of God is that you can make the Bible say whatever you want it to say by making the Bible a "Choose Your Own Adventure Type Bible" by choosing whatever Hebrew (OT) or Greek (NT) definition you want in a Lexicon and nobody would be the wiser because nobody speaks Hebrew and Greek anymore. But people do speak English, though. In other words, you don't believe what is plainly written for all to easily understand. God is not the author of confusion. He speaks plainly for us to understand but what is spoken plainly is hidden from those who are still yet carnal or focused on the outward things of this world. Jesus quoted Scripture many times by saying, "It is written..." Now, if the Scriptures were not nailed down to one specific meaning, then people would be asking Him which variation or definition of the Word of God was He using (Kind of like what you are doing). But no such thing is reported to us within the Scriptures. Jesus had one set authority in quoting the Scriptures. You either believe there is one written Word of God that exists thru out all thru out all time (for every generation), or you don't believe it. I mean, think about it, my friend. Jesus said, Heaven and Earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away. Is not Hebrew and Greek dead languages? What group of people speak and write this language perfectly like they did back in the day? Nobody.
Read it here:
PREFACE TO THE 1611 KING JAMES BIBLE
See, the problem I have with your position on the Word of God is that you can make the Bible say whatever you want it to say by making the Bible a "Choose Your Own Adventure Type Bible" by choosing whatever Hebrew (OT) or Greek (NT) definition you want in a Lexicon and nobody would be the wiser because nobody speaks Hebrew and Greek anymore. But people do speak English, though. In other words, you don't believe what is plainly written for all to easily understand. God is not the author of confusion. He speaks plainly for us to understand but what is spoken plainly is hidden from those who are still yet carnal or focused on the outward things of this world. Jesus quoted Scripture many times by saying, "It is written..." Now, if the Scriptures were not nailed down to one specific meaning, then people would be asking Him which variation or definition of the Word of God was He using (Kind of like what you are doing). But no such thing is reported to us within the Scriptures. Jesus had one set authority in quoting the Scriptures. You either believe there is one written Word of God that exists thru out all thru out all time (for every generation), or you don't believe it. I mean, think about it, my friend. Jesus said, Heaven and Earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away. Is not Hebrew and Greek dead languages? What group of people speak and write this language perfectly like they did back in the day? Nobody.
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