One establishes faith by works for if there are no works then there is no faith, it's dead.
Faith in Christ is established FIRST then we SHOW our established faith by our works. If there are not works to SHOW that our faith is genuine, then it was never established in the first place. Faith that is established is alive in Christ/created in Christ Jesus before it produces good works (Ephesians 2:5-10). A dead faith cannot produce anything because it's dead.
One cannot prove he even has faith without works is James' point.
Yes PROVE, not establish. How can one SHOW his faith by his works if faith is not established and dead? Explain to me how a dead faith that is not established as genuine faith in Christ can produce good works. Also explain to me how a dead tree that is not established can produce fruit.
Gen 15:6 "And he believed in the LORD; and he counted it to him for righteousness."
Yes, he
BELIEVED in the Lord
NOT he believed in the Lord
AND accomplished something further and then he counted it to him for righteousness. Simply
believed in the Lord. Not hard to understand, just hard for you to accept.
1) Gen 15:6 does not say "And he believed ONLY in the Lord" the word onlyh is added, assumed into the verse.
He simply
believed in the Lord. The word "and something else" is added, assumed by you into the verse. Abraham
believed in the Lord and his
faith, not his works, were
counted to him for righteousness MANY YEARS BEFORE HE OFFERED UP ISAAC ON THE ALTAR. Romans 4:2 - For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. 3 For what does the Scripture say? "Abraham
believed God, and it was
accounted to him for righteousness. You have to try really hard to explain away this simple truth.
(2) assuming "only" into Gen 15:6 ignores that Abraham's faith prior to Gen 15:6 contained obedience in moving from his house, land and kindred, Gen 12:1-4 and building altars to worship God, Gen 13:4.
Did God say that Abraham moved from his house, built altars and it was counted to him for righteousness? NO. Why are you focused on what Abraham did prior to believing God and having his faith counted to him for righteousness in Genesis 15:6, when his faith was established and counted to him for righteousness
many years before Abraham was said to be justified by works in James 2:21. How can justified by works mean saved by works when his faith was already counted to him for righteousness?
(3) James also quotes Gen 15:6 (James 2:23) and ties works to that belief.
His work in Genesis 22 was the fruit of his belief, not the essence of his belief. The scripture was fulfilled in vindicating or demonstrating that Abraham believed God and was accounted as righteous.
Abraham was accounted as righteous because of his faith (Genesis 15:6) - root; long before he offered up Isaac on the alter and demonstrated the reality of his faith in Genesis 22 - fruit. In James 2:22, "made perfect or complete" by works means bring to maturity, carry to the end, to complete like love in 1 John 4:18. It doesn't mean he was finally saved based on his works. When Abraham performed the good work in Genesis 22; he fulfilled the expectations created by the pronouncement of his faith in Genesis 15:6.
(4) For one to argue Abraham was saved by "faith only" in Gen 15:6 implies that prior to Gen 15:6 Abraham was an unforgiven, lost reprobate. The context does not allow for that. GEn 15:1 would not be words God would speak to a lost reprobate.
Show me prior to Genesis 15:6 where Abraham's faith was counted to him for righteousness. So from the very first time that God spoke to Abraham, his faith was counted to him for righteousness before Genesis 15:6?
(5) Gen 22:12 would have been when Abraham was justified as James also points this out, James 2:21-24. It was God's final approval of Abraham as Abraham passed the tests given; him by God.
So you are saying that Abraham was still lost in his sins for those many years after he believed God and it was counted to him for righteousness before he offered up Isaac on the altar? Faith accounted as righteousness = unrighteous, lost? Is that also what it means in Romans 4:5-6? James is not using the word "justified" to mean "accounted as righteous" but is "shown to be righteous." James is discussing the
proof of faith
(says-claims he has faith but has no works/I will show you my faith by my works), not the initial act of being accounted as righteous with God (Romans 4:2-3). Abraham's faith was approved in Genesis 15:6 and that's why it was counted to him for righteousness. It's not that complicated.
This final justification was not base upon any faith only but OBEDIENCE to God.
Show me where the Bible says "final" justification. You "added" the word "final". So in your flawed theology, there is an "initial" justification and a "final" justification? Abraham was justified "accounted as righteous" by faith,
not works (Romans 4:2-3) and was "shown to be righteous" by works (James 2:21). That is the sense that Abraham was justified by works. Works bear out the justification that comes by faith. You need to rightly divide the word of truth.
Even ;though God foreknew what Abraham would do it still required Abraham perform the ACT of OBEDIENCE for God's final justification of Abraham.
Abraham was already justified/accounted as righteous
based on his faith and not his works (Genesis 15:6; Romans 4:2-3) long before he was justified/shown to be righteous by his works in James 2:21. When Abraham performed the good work in Genesis 22; he fulfilled the expectations created by the pronouncement of his faith in Genesis 15:6, but Abraham was already saved through faith "faith counted for righteousness" long before he offered up Isaac on the altar and demonstrated the reality of his faith for all to see.