Is there a break in Daniel's 70 weeks? (Daniel 9:26)

[gotime]

That chart's not right. The "cut off" should be at the end of the 69th week, not in the middle of the 70th.

the verse says:

Dan 9:26 And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and...

It does not say straight after or "at threescore and two" So then when after does the Messiah Get Cut Off?

Only Scripture can tell us and it says;

Dan 9:27 And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, ...

In the midst of the week which is after the 62 weeks. It is at the cross that the offerings and sacrifices were fulfilled in Christ and thus lost their meaning. Jesus is the offering for sin He is the sacrifice for sin.

If you split the last week off then you make God a liar as He gave a period of time namely 490 years to repent etc.

Futurism and Preterism is from the one who would change times and laws. See Daniel 7:25. He changed times so you would not know that He was the Antichrist.

There was a time every Protestant new who the Antichrist was but today many have bought the very lies of the Antichrist system. Trace back where Preterism and Futurism came from. He had to change the times and laws so that the world would wonder after the beast. If they werent changed then no one would follow cause everyone would know who it is. but today people have been fooled.

 

[valiant]

But back to the grammar-point: the antecedent (the precedent, the precursor) of the pronoun 'he' in Daniel 9:27 is the last-mentioned person-noun. The 'prince of the people who will come.'

Not in Hebrew. In Hebrew the antecedent to a pronoun is a previous subject of a sentence. It is very rare indeed for an antecedent to be genitive in Hebrew. Thus the antecedent to 'he' is either the people (which would be a singular pronoun) or the Anointed One. Alternately it could simply be God Who is often introduced unexpectedly as 'He'.. What it is NOT is the prince..

 

[valiant]

The context of Matt 24 is set by the question that the disciples ask Him in Matt 24v3, which states:

Now as He sat on the Mount of Olives, the disciples came to Him privately, saying,"Tell us, when will these things be? And what will be the sign of Your coming, and of the end of the age?"

They ask 3 things:

1) "when will these things be?"

2) "And what will be the sign of Your coming,"

3) "and of the end of the age?"

So, the context of Matt 24 is primarily the signs that immediately precede His 2nd Coming,

Mark and Luke BOTH make clear that the context is primarily the signs that lead up to the destruction of Herod's Temple. 'When shall these things be?' That is the Temple being destroyed as just mentioned by Jesus.

The signs of the second coming follow.

Indeed it is 'these things' which will happen within a generation.

Thus the 'great tribulation' (no article) mentioned by Matthew is described by Luke as Jerusalem surrounded by armies, the destruction of the city and the scattering of the Jews among the nations to this present time, and includes all the horrors that the Jews have had to face in accordance with Deut 28. There has never been anything like it in the history of the world that one nation should suffer such tribulation.

There is no reference to Daniel 9 apart from the destruction of the temple in 70 AD,

Once the tribulation of the Jews ends Christ will come again.

 

[flob]

Not in Hebrew. In Hebrew the antecedent to a pronoun is a previous subject of a sentence. It is very rare indeed for an antecedent to be genitive in Hebrew. Thus the antecedent to 'he' is either the people (which would be a singular pronoun) or the Anointed One. Alternately it could simply be God Who is often introduced unexpectedly as 'He'.. What it is NOT is the prince..

That's ridiculous. 'The prince who will come' in 9:26 IS the subject of the singular 'he' in 27 who will make a firm covenant for one seven. Messiah was cut off and 'had nothing' [no 'kingdom of this world'] in 9:26. So Messiah is not making a firm earthly covenant for seven years.
Nor seven decades, nor seven centuries, nor seven minutes, nor seven seconds, nor seven days, nor seven x seven days,
since you or the buffoon EJ Young also seem to create trouble for yourselves regarding the (straightforward) 'sevens' of 24, 25, 26, and 27.
Nor will Messiah. Nor need He. His new covenant, established in His blood, is for eternity.

Revelation and Matthew and Thessalonians, as is Scripture's wont, confirms Daniel.
The Lord Jesus even references 27, warning of the abomination of desolation.
So the individual---the prince---who covenants, then breaks his covenant, then causes the outward Jewish worship (which will have resumed) to cease, and replaces it with his idol, then is himself destroyed (permanently) in 27, is the prince of the people who came and destroyed Jerusalem, not leaving one stone upon another, in 26.
He is not the real, crucified (resurrected) Messiah.

Mt 24:2, 15; 2 Thes 2:3-4, 8-12; Rev 13:1-18.

There is no reference to Daniel 9 apart from the destruction of the temple in 70 AD,

To the contrary of this absurdity,
Matthew 24 (and Revelation 13 and 2 Thessalonians 2), following Daniel 9, all contain prophecy direct and pertinent
to the climax of the age. Which AD 70 (along with Babylon, Persia, and Greece also) typifies

 

[jonl]

This is the interpretation that I get that 69 weeks have passed but the 70th week will not occur until the tribulation period which will be the time that God gives the world their way for 7 years to allow all people that do not love God to follow the beast kingdom and put them down and save Israel.

The reason why the 70th week could not have happened is because Israel was not in the truth because of their rejection of Christ so God punished them by allowing the Roman Empire to overthrow Jerusalem and the Jews were scattered in to the world.

Daniel said that the Jews have 70 weeks to get right by being in the truth which would be by accepting Christ as a nation.

Since they have 70 weeks to get right before God and they are not in that position for the Jews are not accepting Christ as a nation then the 70th week could not of happened for if it did Israel would of been right with God almost 2000 years ago which they were scattered in to the world for not accepting the truth.

So the 70th week is still to come which God is using that 7 years to allow the Gentiles that do not love Him to follow the beast kingdom and during the first half of the tribulation send 2 witnesses to the Jews to turn them to the truth that Jesus is their messiah which they then accept Christ.

I read and skimmed through most of the posts about the 70[SUP]th[/SUP] week. I thought mpaper345 had a good summary. These are some of my thoughts:

445 BC – edict of Artaxerxes for Nehemiah to rebuild Jerusalem

THE 70 WEEKS OF DANIEL

excerpt:
So the 69 weeks were a period of 69 x 7 = 483 biblical years.
483 x 360 = 173,880 days. These 173,880 days ran from very early in the month of Nisan in 445 B.C. to terminate 476 solar years and 25 days later on a very significant and auspicious day. The 69 weeks ended on Palm Sunday, the day which saw the first coming of Christ as "Messiah the Prince" enter into His Holy city.

June 7, 1967 is when Israel regained Jerusalem.

THE WOOD ZONE: SIR ISAAC NEWTON AND THE PROPHETIC WEEK
excerpt:
June 7, 1967 falls in the Hebrew year 5727, adding forty-nine prophetic years to this date we arrive in the Hebrew year 5776, which is 2015 on the Gregorian calendar. Interestingly, if one counts exactly forty-nine (360 day) prophetic years (17,640 days) from the June 7, 1967 date of Jerusalem’s recapture, we arrive at September 23, 2015—the Day of Atonement! Coincidence?
----------------

Daniels Week Prophecy "49" Started June 7th, 1967! - ANTICHRIST REVEALED

This long article comes up with an interesting point about the 7 weeks. If the 7 weeks have already been applied in the 62 + 7 weeks to Palm Sunday, how can the 7 weeks be added to June 7, 1967? The article seems to re-apply the 7 weeks. Then the calculated numbers seem to fall on Hebrew feast days and shemitahs. Based on the article’s calculations, the second coming of Christ is around Sept. 21, 2021, during the Eve of Tabernacles.
excerpts:
The 6th Feast Day of Yom Kippur of 2021 points to the 7th Feast Day of Tabernacles 2021! What Are The Odds?
….
This brings me to my last point. His Return points to the beginning of the 7th! Based upon the timeline presented, he will return on the Beginning of the….
7th Millenium (At the end of 6,000 years)
7th Year (Daniel’s 7th Year)
7th Month (The month of Tishri)
7th Day (As in the 7th day of Daniel’s “week”)
7th Feast Day (Tabernacles of 2021, that follows the 6th feast of Yom Kippur)
7th Shmitah (1st Shmitah after the Jubilee)
7th Bowl of Wrath (Rev. 16:17-21)

 

[gotime]

Dan 9:27 And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.

some are missing this part.

what is the covenant and why only one week?

First what is the covenant?

This one is simple, the context answers it clearly. here is is:

Dan 9:24 Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness, and to seal up the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy.

There you have it.

Why only one week?

Because there is only one week left. 69 weeks are already completed. The first 3 and a half weeks Jesus himself confimed the covenant made with Israel and the last 3 and one half were confirmed through Those who He called.

Then followed in 70 ad the abomination that causes desolation see Luke 21. blessings.

 

[gotime]

hope this helps.

Dan 9:26 And after the threescore and two weeks shall the anointed one be cut off, and shall have nothing: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and even unto the end shall be war; desolations are determined.

notice that sometime after the threescore and two weeks the anointed one/Jesus will be cut off/crucified for us. and the people of the prince/Rome will come and destroy the city and sanctuary/70 ad.

as Jesus said:

Luk 21:20 But when ye see Jerusalem compassed with armies, then know that her desolation is at hand.

but it will not stop their as it is written:

and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and even unto the end shall be war; desolations are determined.

the war does not end in 70 ad no it keeps going till the time determined as Jesus said:

Luk 21:22 For these are days of vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled.
Luk 21:23 Woe unto them that are with child and to them that give suck in those days! for there shall be great distress upon the land, and wrath unto this people.
Luk 21:24 And they shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led captive into all the nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled.

the times of the gentiles will be fulfilled. This time is found in Revelation and Daniel:

Rev 11:2 But the court which is without the temple leave out, and measure it not; for it is given unto the Gentiles: and the holy city shall they tread under foot forty and two months.

IF you understand this time it appears in Daniel and Revelation in three forms.

42 months, time times and half of time and 1260 days. they are all the same period, 3 and a half years is made up of 42 months which is made up of 1260 days. same period. find it in Daniel 7 connect it with Revelation 13 first beast etc.

but back to Daniel 9:

determined.
Dan 9:27 And he shall make a firm covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease; and upon the wing of abominations shall come one that maketh desolate; and even unto the full end, and that determined, shall wrath be poured out upon the desolate.

This verse tells us when after the 62 weeks the anointed/messiah would be cut of. in the middle Jesus did indeed minister of 3 and a half years. but what would happen after?

on the wing of this Messiah being cutt of/Jesus death what will happen?

hall come one that maketh desolate; and even unto the full end, and that determined, shall wrath be poured out upon the desolate.

Again the same thing as the verse before this one that rome and something after would continue to make desolation of Gods truth until the time God has determined.

In order to know who or what you must go back to Daniel 7 and 8.

hope that helps blessings.

 

[GaryA]

You said:

Thus at the end of 69 'sevens' the 'Anointed One' is cut off.

Then I said:

No - that is not what it says. Please read verse 25 again. At the end of 69 'sevens' is when He "shows up"...

( "arrives on the scene" / "enters the picture" / etc. )

( Please understand the prophetic context of the passage. )

And now you say:

seems clear to me. 'after the sixty two seven the anointed one will be cut off'

"Are you paying attention?????"


I am guessing that you really meant to say 62 in post #114 ( first quote above ).

Now you know why I made the reply of post #117.

 

[flob]

September 23, 2015—the Day of Atonement!

Well that's easy to test. It's coming up soon.
This whole matter of the last (70th) seven is not a matter of determining the date beforehand.
Lol.
But of recognizing it (if you want to) when it happens.
Because 'everyone' will be around. It is not a (pretrib, or anytrib) rapture date.
Rather..........3 1/2 years FROM the 7th king (Antichrist's) '7-year' treaty making....
will transpire the pretrib (minority of saints) rapture.

In order to know who or what you must go back to Daniel 7 and 8.
hope that helps blessings.

What? Who?

 

[valiant]

You said:



Then I said:



And now you say:



"Are you paying attention?????"


I am guessing that you really meant to say 62 in post #114 ( first quote above ).

Now you know why I made the reply of post #117.

LOL He comes after the sixty two seven and after the sixty nine sevens. Both end on the same date.

 

[valiant]

Valiant posted : Not in Hebrew. In Hebrew the antecedent to a pronoun is a previous subject of a sentence. It is very rare indeed for an antecedent to be genitive in Hebrew. Thus the antecedent to 'he' is either the people (which would be a singular pronoun) or the Anointed One. Alternately it could simply be God Who is often introduced unexpectedly as 'He'.. What it is NOT is the prince..

That's ridiculous. 'The prince who will come' in 9:26 IS the subject of the singular 'he' in 27 who will make a firm covenant for one seven.

Clearly your grammar is suspect. But then you are only 15(?). The subject of a sentence is the noun concerning which the following verb is spoken. For example 'the man sat on the wall'. The man is the subject of sat. 'The employee of the prince sat --'. In this case the subject of the verb is 'the employee'. Thus the previous SUBJECT to the 'he' in 9.27 is THE PEOPLE of the prince who will come (which in Hebrew would become 'he' as a composite noun.). It is your position which is ridiculous.

Messiah was cut off and 'had nothing' [no 'kingdom of this world'] in 9:26. So Messiah is not making a firm earthly covenant for seven years.

So you don't think He rose again and that God knew He would? But even if we ignore that the Hebrew allows us to see Him as making the covenant before He is cut off. Your argument lose on all points.

Nor seven decades, nor seven centuries, nor seven minutes, nor seven seconds, nor seven days, nor seven x seven days,
since you or the buffoon EJ Young also seem to create trouble for yourselves regarding the (straightforward) 'sevens' of 24, 25, 26, and 27.

The buffoon Edward J Young wrote a scholarly work on Daniel which was seen as acceptable at the highest level of scholarship. He was one of America's leading scholars. He was also an expert in Hebrew and Aramaic. If he is a buffoon then you are a screaming idiot

Nor will Messiah. Nor need He. His new covenant, established in His blood, is for eternity

.

Strange I thought He made a new covenant in the Upper Room. Must have been someone else with the same name.

Revelation and Matthew and Thessalonians, as is Scripture's wont, confirms Daniel.

you mean you force it it confirm Daniel?

The Lord Jesus even references 27, warning of the abomination of desolation.

The abomination of desolation spoken of by Jesus comes in 11.31 and 12.11.

So the individual---the prince---who covenants, then breaks his covenant, then causes the outward Jewish worship (which will have resumed) to cease, and replaces it with his idol,

Absolute total and nonsensical rubbish in the light of the Hebrew. We are told why the Jewish worship ceases. It is because the city and sanctuary have been destroyed. And that happened in 70 AD.

 

[TMS]

the verse says:

There was a time every Protestant new who the Antichrist was but today many have bought the very lies of the Antichrist system. Trace back where Preterism and Futurism came from. He had to change the times and laws so that the world would wonder after the beast. If they werent changed then no one would follow cause everyone would know who it is. but today people have been fooled.

History is clear that this (preterism and futurism) was invented by the RCC to take the heat off themselves as the Antichrist. But it is so sad that so many people have swallowed it hock, line and sinker.

 

[flob]

Clearly your grammar is suspect. But then you are only 15(?). The subject of a sentence is the noun concerning which the following verb is spoken. For example 'the man sat on the wall'. The man is the subject of sat. 'The employee of the prince sat --'. In this case the subject of the verb is 'the employee'. Thus the previous SUBJECT to the 'he' in 9.27 is THE PEOPLE of the prince who will come (which in Hebrew would become 'he' as a composite noun.). It is your position which is ridiculous.

It sounds like you've recently changed your understanding then. Instead of Christ making His new covenant in 9:27, now it's the Romans who have made? Or will make? a covenant with.......Israel? Or us Gentiles?
If the Romans made a covenant having anything to do with 7----7 seconds, 7 minutes, 7 years, 7 ice cream flavors----with Israel......or with Spain or with broccoli or with anybody---around AD 30, or 33, or 34, or 35 or 37 or 70, or 70 B.C..............or anytime in all of history, I'd love to read about it from you. All because---or regardless whether---the word 'they' exists in Aramaic or Hebrew.

... the Hebrew allows us to see Him as making the covenant before He is cut off.

In 9:26 Messiah is cut off. In this sequential passage on 'weeks.' In 9:27, therefore, we travel backwards to BEFORE 9:26? Apparently you allow the Hebrew to allow you to read anything you prefer.

But I see you are firm with your interpretation of Daniel here----that even though 70 sevens are apportioned for DANIEL'S people (Judah/Israel) and Jerusalem----Christ's new covenant is here with Gentiles also. Thus changing the object of the apportionment in 9:24. And, to you, the 70 sevens are over, although the new covenant had/has nothing to do with 'one seven' (9:27)? Do either the Hebrew.............or our imagination.........allow us to interpret 'one seven' to......mean anything in the universe we want it to mean? Like: at His Last Supper, Christ made His new covenant................forever...therefore 'seven' in Hebrew means 'forever'? (Similar maybe to how '1000' in Revelation 20 means '2000,' or any other 'long time'?)

One (true) reason that the 70 sevens are not concluded yet is that Israel as a nation has rejected Messiah's propitiation so far. But the covenant in 9:27, as 9:27 all by itself can make clear to an unbiased reader, is made by Christ's Opposite. The Desolator. That's why his work is 'abominations.' That is not a positive (complimentary) noun here. Unless..............in following your interpretation.........when you're ready can you share how you think Messiah 'replaces the sacrifice and the oblation with abominations of the desolator, even until the complete destruction...is poured out upon the desolator'?

In fact, the covenant isn't made before Christ's death, nor is it made by Christ.

Strange I thought He made a new covenant in the Upper Room. Must have been someone else with the same name.

Here's your opportunity again. 'And he will make a firm covenant with the many for one week...'
Just that part (to start)---------where is one week in the Upper Room Covenant?

you mean you force [Scripture to] confirm Daniel?

Matthew 24:15-16 quotes Jesus saying
'Therefore when you see the abomination of desolation, which was spoken of through Daniel the prophet, standing in the holy place (let him who reads understand), then let those in Judea flee to the mountains...'

So since Christ makes His firm new covenant with the many for one seven (whatever a 'seven' is), in 9:27; and in the middle of the seven (whatever a seven is), Messiah caused Judaism's OT worship to cease (in AD 30? AD 70? Which one? Both?);
then when or how does Messiah replace Judaism's OT temple worship with abominations of the desolator?
According to EJ Young.............Christ is the abominations of the desolator?

The abomination of desolation spoken of by Jesus comes in [Daniel] 11.31 and 12.11.

Please forgive me for attempting to probe. To learn from the 'highest scholarship.' (Kind of like learning from Gamaliel or other Pharisees and geniuses?) Do you or EJ say then that the abomination of desolation in 9:27 DIFFERS from that of 11:31 and/or 12:11? Is an 'abomination' Messiah Himself, in 9:27...............but then an idol or anti-Messiah in 11:31 or 12:11 or Matthew 24:15?

We are told why the Jewish worship ceases. It is because the city and sanctuary have been destroyed. And that happened in 70 AD.

But that happened in Daniel 9:26. And so that is why you revert 9:27 back in time to way Before 70 AD? 40 years before 70 AD.

If 69 of the 70 sevens (whatever sevens are to you-----are they periods of time? Are they ice cream flavors? Are they tv shows? Are they books?) ---- but anyway: if 69 of them finished before, or at the point that, Messiah was cut off; and the one seven in 9:27 actually was somehow part of the 69 (flavors? math problems? animals?) because it (somehow) refers to the Upper Room; then where in Daniel 9:25-27 is the 70th seven? Where in history is it? What and where in the universe, or in God, is it? Is it EJ's or your reading that 70 sevens really means 69 sevens, or that 69 sevens = 70 sevens?
Thank you for the help Valiant

 

[eternally-gratefull]

It is quite clear that Daniel himself did not consider there to be a break between the sixty ninth seven and the seventieth seven. He saw the seventy sevens as patterned on the seventy years of Jeremiah. No one would have dreamed of putting a break in the seventy year of Daniel.

Oh, so you were there with Daniel. You spoke to him personally and know what he thought? How old are you?

You make alot of assumptions here.

If we put a break it indicates that our interpretation is wrong.

And again, You know this how? What made you so smart? or are you listening to men?

The truth is that there is not a single piece of reliable evidence that makes 'a seven' indicate seven years. Such an idea is based on false utilisation of other Scriptures. It is called 'the numbers game'.

oh wow. now we go to symbolising a seven, which has never been done in prophesy up to the time of Christ. Your going the catholic way. I see.

If we take the prophecy at face value, and allow it to interpret itself, without trying to fit it into our schemes, it is fairly straightforward.

Now this we can agree on. Although I doubt we will agree with the interpretation.

The 'going forth of the word' to rebuild Jerusalem is the same 'going forth of the word' in verse 23. In other words it refers to the date when Daniel received the prophecy. But that won't do because it cancels out seven meaning years. So we all then pick out a date that suits our theory based on man made decrees.

Actually the going forth in vs 23 was the command given to go forth and give daniel a prophesy, It is only assumed it is the same day it was given, We know other times, the angel was stopped. or hindered by getting to david on the same day, So your first premise is based on unknowns.

and even if it was the same day, it still does not make what you say true.

Second. the premise that this would cancel out sevens meaning a literal seven is in error. because it just marks a time when a prophesy was given to give daniel was given, the sevens are part of the command, so has nothing to do with the time at all.

'Sevens' are periods in which God works out His purposes. How long they are is not indicated.

Thats interesting since Daniel even considered a seven to indicate 7 years, as proven by the fact he knew a 70 week prophesy given to jeremiah was about to be completed, and this is what caused him to pray this in the first place.

Thus at the end of 69 'sevens' the 'Anointed One' is cut off. Then follows the destruction of city and sanctuary. This only requires a break if we are falsely calling 'sevens' seven years. Using normal methods of interpretation it takes place in the midst of the seventieth seven when sacrifices and offerings cease. There is no justification, apart from theories, for denying it. Thus that 'half a seven' is forty year. The final half of the seven then allows for the rest of time to the end of time when the goals are fulfilled. The covenant made is made between God and His people in consequence of the death of the Messiah. It is the new covenant. In Daniel 'covenant' always means God's covenant, and the fact that it is 'confirmed' not initially made confirms this. Other agreements, alliances and treaties are described in those words.

or we do like you just did, and make your own interpretation of what a seven is, which does not fit historically, Does not fit in hebrew language (interpretation) and does not fit any belief I have ever heard before from any church. (although I could be wrong and some church actually teaches it and I forgot about it because it was so rediculous I never gave it a second thought.)

Of course the problem is that I am taking it LITERALLY, something which 'the literalists' cannot do.

No, Your twisting meanings, interpretions and not taking ANYTHING LITERALLY. which is why you are in trouble

 

[eternally-gratefull]

yes. It's laughable to think it says the 70th 7th ever began, much less is finished.

well if we read daniel correctly, and the things which occure "after" the 69th week, when messiah is cutt off. You are correct.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

No - that is not what it says. Please read verse 25 again. At the end of 69 'sevens' is when He "shows up"...

( "arrives on the scene" / "enters the picture" / etc. )

( Please understand the prophetic context of the passage. )

Yes, When he arrives on a donkey, as prophesied.

He was cut off immediately (literaly hung a week later)

remember, he kept saying "my time is not yet" he said it up until he netered jeruslaem as messiah, as prophesied.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Daniel 9:

[SUP]24[/SUP] Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness, and to seal up the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy. [SUP]25[/SUP] Know therefore and understand, that from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem unto the Messiah the Prince shall be seven weeks, and threescore and two weeks: the street shall be built again, and the wall, even in troublous times. [SUP]26[/SUP] And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined. [SUP]27[/SUP] And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.


A correct interpretation of this passage requires a sufficient understanding of the following...

According to the 'grammar of the language':

~ The phrase "seven weeks, and threescore and two weeks" cannot be "disassembled" in such a way that the end of the first seven weeks becomes a reference point to which 62 weeks can be added ( in verse 26 ). It is only properly interpreted collectively ( in week-counting terms ) as 69 weeks.

~ This phrase is very significant. In week-counting terms, it refers to the end of the rebuilding of Jerusalem. It is from this point that the 62 weeks are added. ( The words "And after" in verse 26 refer back to this phrase. )

~ This part of the verse is an 'aside'; it is a "look-ahead" reference to events ( ~70 A.D. ) that do not even take place within the 70 weeks, and has absolutely no connection what-so-ever with the "counting" of weeks or the events that are associated with those weeks.

~ There is no reference to the word 'prince' ( in verse 26 ) anywhere in the passage. All three of the words 'he' in verse 27 refer back to the word 'Messiah' in verse 26.

~ This is also a "look-ahead" reference, and has no direct connection with the 70 weeks.


"If you do not understand all of these things very clearly --- 'keep studying' until you do..."

Thats one interpretation, and when taken with alot of other prophesies, and matthew 24, Does not fit..

Keep studying until you make them fit, and you will get it

 

[eternally-gratefull]

the verse says:

Dan 9:26 And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and...

It does not say straight after or "at threescore and two" So then when after does the Messiah Get Cut Off?

Only Scripture can tell us and it says;

Dan 9:27 And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, ...

In the midst of the week which is after the 62 weeks. It is at the cross that the offerings and sacrifices were fulfilled in Christ and thus lost their meaning. Jesus is the offering for sin He is the sacrifice for sin.

If you split the last week off then you make God a liar as He gave a period of time namely 490 years to repent etc.

Futurism and Preterism is from the one who would change times and laws. See Daniel 7:25. He changed times so you would not know that He was the Antichrist.

There was a time every Protestant new who the Antichrist was but today many have bought the very lies of the Antichrist system. Trace back where Preterism and Futurism came from. He had to change the times and laws so that the world would wonder after the beast. If they werent changed then no one would follow cause everyone would know who it is. but today people have been fooled.

1. It does not say the sacrifice will be cut off because it was no more needed, that would be a mistake, because a sacrifice never took away sin, 2. The Holy of Holies had not been in real service forever, the high priest never died entering in, even in sin, because the presence of God had left along time agao (most likely before babylon) and never re-entered after, because Israel was always in sin)
2. Jesus did not stop sacrifice, they kept going on, up until the time the temple was destroyed in 70 AD (even today, they are trying to figure out how to sacrifice again, and rebuild the temple)
3. The sacrifice is stopped because of the abomination of desolation ( which jesus said will happen at the end of days)

so everything you just said is based on a false premis. don;t you think?

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Mark and Luke BOTH make clear that the context is primarily the signs that lead up to the destruction of Herod's Temple. 'When shall these things be?' That is the Temple being destroyed as just mentioned by Jesus.

The signs of the second coming follow.

Indeed it is 'these things' which will happen within a generation.

Thus the 'great tribulation' (no article) mentioned by Matthew is described by Luke as Jerusalem surrounded by armies, the destruction of the city and the scattering of the Jews among the nations to this present time, and includes all the horrors that the Jews have had to face in accordance with Deut 28. There has never been anything like it in the history of the world that one nation should suffer such tribulation.

There is no reference to Daniel 9 apart from the destruction of the temple in 70 AD,

Once the tribulation of the Jews ends Christ will come again.

this is wrong.

Jesus was asked three questions.

When will these things be (the destruction of Jeruslaem)

the signs of the end of the age

The sign of your coming.

Jesus answered all three. but spent most of what he said on the last two.

(birth pangs, but end is not yet)

then he gave the sign (first) given, the abomination of desolation spoken of by daniel (daniel 9)

the great tribulation which would follow

The return of Christ, to put an end to everything (make an end of sin fulfill daniel 9, set up his kingdom to fulfill the rest of prophesy which has yet to be fulfilled)

you miss half of what Jesus said when you only take a small part.

 

[valiant]

It sounds like you've recently changed your understanding then. Instead of Christ making His new covenant in 9:27, now it's the Romans who have made? Or will make? a covenant with.......Israel? Or us Gentiles?

The people of the coming prince are the Jews. The coming prince has been described in verse 25. It is because the prince has been cut off that the writer speaks of 'the people of the prince'. The word for prince is nagid which is the prominent term for a Jewish leader.

However if you check back you will discover that I also suggested the possibility that the 'He' of verse 27 was the Messiah Himself or was in fact God.

'The people' is a singular masculine noun and would therefore be 'he'