hey, read the first 15 or so verses of Romans 6.
it's pretty clear that we have died -- this is accomplished in us, in Christ.
if i'm understanding you right, Robert, mainly what you're saying is that (a) our death occurred at the moment Christ died on the cross ((whatever argument i have with that is based on the transcendence of the event with regard to time, so in my view that's homomorphically true, yes)) & (b) in regard to the justice of the law, and its fulfillment, our death in Christ satisfies the requirement of sin.
is that about right? please clear me up if i'm misrepresenting you.
i don't see you placing us under law here - being a 'legalist' - but sorting out how the law is fulfilled in us as believers, being immersed in Christ, without our having been physically made subject to the blood requirement. He Himself bore the penalty, and the burden of our sin, so that we, through Him, might have life. i am sure this doesn't contradict the law any more than any sacrifice of an unblemished animal did under Moses.
it's pretty clear that we have died
We were born in the 20th century. Logically speaking, how could we die 2000 years ago?
This is the question I'm asking all along.
Also, what did that death do to our status? Did it wipe our slate clean?
Please explain the concept of "transcendence" and "homomorphism."
in regard to the justice of the law, and its fulfillment, our death in Christ satisfies the requirement of sin
Are you saying that man's death (in whatever form, and in whatever transcendence of time) was his penalty according to the Law?
i don't see you placing us under law here
If every man who ever lived died when Jesus died, why did God
but sorting out how the law is fulfilled in us as believers, being immersed in Christ
being immersed in Christ, without our having been physically made subject to the blood requirement.
My Bible says in Romans 1: 2 that we died....but we died to sin, and that happened when we made Jesus, (the Son of God, who came in the flesh), our Lord!