Again, it is easy to see the gap. if one would just read what happens after the messiah is cut off. For the prophesy gives us a set of things which must occur. after that takes place (after the 69th week)
[SUP]26 [/SUP]“And after the sixty-two weeks Messiah shall be cut off, but not for Himself;
This occurs after, or at the end of the 69th week. The word after is a noun, It means after, behind, rear end following etc. In other words, at the completion of the 69th week. the messiah will be cut off.
I do love these amateur Hebraists who speak with such confidence, and with such nonsense. 'achar is originally a verb meaning 'delay'. Thus it does not have the sense of immediacy but of delay. From this verb comes the adverb used in Dan 9.26 which simply means 'some time afterwards. after a delay'. It does not have a sense of immediacy. (Almost all Hebrew words, whether nouns, adverbs, prepositions or pronouns are derived from verbs, thus it is the verb which gives the sense of the root idea). So all this sentence tells us is that some time after the end of the 69th seven He will be cut off. It cannot be made to mean immediately afterwards. Compare its use in Gen 6.4; 22.1. It often has the vague sense of 'some time afterwards.'
Thus your argument falls at the first hurdle.
Also remember. Messiah the prince was to be introduced 69 weeks to the day after the decree
(from the going forth of the command To restore and build Jerusalem Until Messiah the Prince,There shall be seven weeks and sixty-two weeks) which was fulfilled literally when Jesus entered jerusalem on the donkey.
That's funny, 'to the day is not in my Bible. It says 'some time after the sixty ninth seven.' And the word in mind was not man's decree but the going forth of God's word, the word that went forth in verse 23. Inconvenient but true.
I am not sure how it was literally fulfilled when Jesus entered into Jerusalem on a donkey. I see no mention of a donkey. But no I realise what you mean when you talk of taking the Bible 'literally'. You simply mean in accordance with your own ideas.
And the people of the prince who is to come Shall destroy the city and the sanctuary.
Fulfilled 70 AD. almost 40 years AFTER messiah was cut off (thus we already have introduced a gap)
But NOWHERE does it say that this occurs within the seventy sevens!!!!! That is just your assumption. It is an added remark commenting on something that will happen. It does not say that it will happen within the seventy sevens.
But suppose some intelligent person asked when this took place. He would look at the text and realise the answer immediately. It was when the sacrifices and oblations were cut off in the midst of the seventieth seven. That is referring to the Temple ceasing to be effective, clearly because it has been destroyed. To ignore the similarity between the two statements in such a limited context would be criminal. It would show interpretation gone wild. Thus it tells us that half a 'seven' can be seen as forty years.
Ah well, bang goes the 'seven = seven years' doctrine, and thank God for that. Now we don't have to play around with history in order to make it fit our pattern. We can let the Spirit guide us into its true meaning.
The end of it shall be with a flood, And till the end of the war desolations are determined.
Daniel is being told that jerusalem will lie desolate (in gentile hands) until the end of war desolations are determined.
As I am sure you are aware this verse is 'loose Hebrew' and can be translated any number of ways (whichever suits our theories lol). A more accurate translation is 'to the end wars and desolations are determined' which is exactly what Jesus said would happen after His coming and death and after the destruction of the Temple (Matt 24).
We are not given a time, but we know Jerusalem is still desolate today.
well I suppose that depends on how you define 'desolate'. I am not sure the Israelis would agree with you. It is a built up and proud city. But why let facts get in the way of a theory.
This it is NOT in disagreeing with scripture to understand this time (gap) is still in effect)
Of course it is. Like the seventy years, the seventy sevens were to be consecutive without a gap. There is no justification for seeing it otherwise. If our theory inserts a gap it proves our theory is wrong, WRONG.
We can also look at matt 24 to see. Jesus says there will be wars and rumors of wars.. This is the same time period.
Yes starting from His death and the destruction of the Temple
[SUP]27 [/SUP]Then he shall confirm a covenant with many for one week;
The antecedent to 'he' is either the Messiah, the people of the Messiah, or God Himself. The covenant of God is confirmed with His people until the end comes,
But in the middle of the week
He shall bring an end to sacrifice and offering.
By crucifying the Messiah and destroying the Temple. The two ideas are linked in the New Testament.
And on the wing of abominations shall be one who makes desolate,
Even until the consummation, which is determined,
Is poured out on the desolate.”
This speaks of Gods wrath, Great tribulation, or jacobs trouble. The desolate are those in opposition to God. The consumation of this time period again is spoken of by Jesus himself. (when you see the son of man coming in the clouds)
It says nothing about God's wrath. Nor of 'great tribulation'. Why should it be the time of Jacob's trouble. It is speaking of the history of the world as outlined by Jesus.
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