Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,"

[plaintalk]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

[SUP]38 [/SUP]Peter said to them, “Repent, and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.[SUP]39 [/SUP]For the promise is for you and your children and for all who are far off, as many as the Lord our God will call to Himself.” (Acts 2: 38, 39) NASB
John MacArthur makes the following comment in reference to Acts 2: 38, 39. “It is also possible to take the clause "and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ" as parenthetical. Support for that interpretation comes from that fact that "repent" and "your" are plural, while "be baptized" is singular, thus setting it off from the rest of the sentence. If that interpretation is correct, the verse would read "Repent (and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ) for the forgiveness of your sins." Forgiveness is thus connected with repentance, not baptism, in keeping with the consistent teaching of the New Testament (cf. Luke 24:47; John 3:18; Acts 5:31; 10:43; 13:38; 26:18; Ephesians 5:26).”
This is a “possible interpretation” based on the grammar, but is it a necessary interpretation? Does it warrant the conclusion, “Forgiveness is thus connected with repentance, not baptism, in keeping with the consistent teaching of the New Testament?” Acts 22: 16- In this verse baptism is connected with “wash away your sins,” contrary to Mr. MacArthur’s conclusion. Eph. 1: 3- In this all spiritual blessing (including forgiveness?) are stated to be “in Christ,” and we are baptized into Christ. (Rom. 6: 3; Gal. 3: 27) Eph. 1: 7- In this verse redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, is stated to be in Him and we are baptized into Him, into Christ. Col. 1: 14- Again, redemption, the forgiveness of sins, is stated to be in Christ, and we are baptized into Christ. Rom. 6: 7- He who has died is freed from sin, but we die when baptized into Christ. (Rom. 6: 6) Rom. 6: 17, 18- He who has obeyed that form of teaching is freed from sin, but that form of teaching—death---burial---resurrection, is obeyed when we are baptized. (Rom. 6: 3-6) (Eph. 5: 26- Cleansing is associated with the washing of water with the word. This appears to be a reference to baptism in water through the auspices of the word. Heb. 10: 22- Our hearts are sprinkled clean (Heb. 9: 14) from an evil conscience and our bodies are washed with pure water. The later appears to be a reference to baptism in water. 1 Peter 1: 2- When we obey (by repentance and baptism? (Acts 2: 38) Jesus Christ we are sprinkled with the blood of Christ. 1 Peter 1: 22- in obedience to the truth (by repentance and baptism? Acts 2: 38) we purify our souls.
Many on this forum share Mr. MacArthur view. IMO Mr. MacArthur has been less than candid; he has drawn conclusions based on partial truth, cherry picked his references and came to unwarranted conclusions. A more accurate conclusion would be, “Forgiveness of sins is connected with faith which works through repentance and baptism to bring us into contact with the blood of Christ.” Thus the NASB interpretation of Acts 2: 38, 39, appears to reflect God’s intent. God bless.

 

[oldhermit]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

[SUP]38 [/SUP]Peter said to them, “Repent, and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.[SUP]39 [/SUP]For the promise is for you and your children and for all who are far off, as many as the Lord our God will call to Himself.” (Acts 2: 38, 39) NASB
John MacArthur makes the following comment in reference to Acts 2: 38, 39. “It is also possible to take the clause "and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ" as parenthetical. Support for that interpretation comes from that fact that "repent" and "your" are plural, while "be baptized" is singular, thus setting it off from the rest of the sentence. If that interpretation is correct, the verse would read "Repent (and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ) for the forgiveness of your sins." Forgiveness is thus connected with repentance, not baptism, in keeping with the consistent teaching of the New Testament (cf. Luke 24:47; John 3:18; Acts 5:31; 10:43; 13:38; 26:18; Ephesians 5:26).”
This is a “possible interpretation” based on the grammar, but is it a necessary interpretation? Does it warrant the conclusion, “Forgiveness is thus connected with repentance, not baptism, in keeping with the consistent teaching of the New Testament?” Acts 22: 16- In this verse baptism is connected with “wash away your sins,” contrary to Mr. MacArthur’s conclusion. Eph. 1: 3- In this all spiritual blessing (including forgiveness?) are stated to be “in Christ,” and we are baptized into Christ. (Rom. 6: 3; Gal. 3: 27) Eph. 1: 7- In this verse redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, is stated to be in Him and we are baptized into Him, into Christ. Col. 1: 14- Again, redemption, the forgiveness of sins, is stated to be in Christ, and we are baptized into Christ. Rom. 6: 7- He who has died is freed from sin, but we die when baptized into Christ. (Rom. 6: 6) Rom. 6: 17, 18- He who has obeyed that form of teaching is freed from sin, but that form of teaching—death---burial---resurrection, is obeyed when we are baptized. (Rom. 6: 3-6) (Eph. 5: 26- Cleansing is associated with the washing of water with the word. This appears to be a reference to baptism in water through the auspices of the word. Heb. 10: 22- Our hearts are sprinkled clean (Heb. 9: 14) from an evil conscience and our bodies are washed with pure water. The later appears to be a reference to baptism in water. 1 Peter 1: 2- When we obey (by repentance and baptism? (Acts 2: 38) Jesus Christ we are sprinkled with the blood of Christ. 1 Peter 1: 22- in obedience to the truth (by repentance and baptism? Acts 2: 38) we purify our souls.
Many on this forum share Mr. MacArthur view. IMO Mr. MacArthur has been less than candid; he has drawn conclusions based on partial truth, cherry picked his references and came to unwarranted conclusions. A more accurate conclusion would be, “Forgiveness of sins is connected with faith which works through repentance and baptism to bring us into contact with the blood of Christ.” Thus the NASB interpretation of Acts 2: 38, 39, appears to reflect God’s intent. God bless.

See post #237 on page 12.

 

[mailmandan]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

[SUP]38 [/SUP]Peter said to them, “Repent, and each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.[SUP]39 [/SUP]For the promise is for you and your children and for all who are far off, as many as the Lord our God will call to Himself.” (Acts 2: 38, 39) NASB
John MacArthur makes the following comment in reference to Acts 2: 38, 39. “It is also possible to take the clause "and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ" as parenthetical. Support for that interpretation comes from that fact that "repent" and "your" are plural, while "be baptized" is singular, thus setting it off from the rest of the sentence. If that interpretation is correct, the verse would read "Repent (and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ) for the forgiveness of your sins." Forgiveness is thus connected with repentance, not baptism, in keeping with the consistent teaching of the New Testament (cf. Luke 24:47; John 3:18; Acts 5:31; 10:43; 13:38; 26:18; Ephesians 5:26).” This is a “possible interpretation” based on the grammar, but is it a necessary interpretation? Does it warrant the conclusion, “Forgiveness is thus connected with repentance, not baptism, in keeping with the consistent teaching of the New Testament?”

See post #234 on page 12 and post #243 on page 13.

Acts 22: 16 - In this verse baptism is connected with “wash away your sins,” contrary to Mr. MacArthur’s conclusion.

As Greek scholar AT Robertson points out, baptism here pictures the washing away of sins by the blood of Christ, but it does not literally wash away our sins, contrary to your conclusion. In Acts 10:43, receiving remission of sins is connected with "believes in Him" and not with baptism (Acts 10:43-47). As I already explained to you, in Acts 9, the Savior told Ananias that Paul "is a chosen vessel unto Me" (v. 15), although the apostle had not yet been baptized. Before Paul was baptized, Christ had already commissioned him to "bear [His] name before the Gentiles, and kings, and the children of Israel" (Acts 9:15); such a commission is not God’s portion for one still lost and under divine wrath. Before Paul’s baptism, Christ had set him aside as one who would "suffer for His name’s sake" (9:16). Can one who is a child of the devil, as all the lost are (Ephesians 2:1-3, John 8:44), really suffer for Christ’s sake? NO. God accepted Paul’s prayers before his baptism (Acts 9:11). People in the church of Christ teach that God does not hear an unsaved man's prayer, quoting in this regard John 9:31 - "We know that God does not listen to sinners. He listens to the godly man who does his will." Well, Paul was a worshipper of God, calling Christ "Lord" and then setting out to do His will. All of these things characterized Paul before he was baptized. So, Paul had already believed in Christ when Ananias came to pray for him to receive his sight (Acts 9:17). It also should be noted that Paul at the time when Ananias prayed for him to receive his sight, he was filled with the Holy Spirit (Acts 9:17)--this was before he was water baptized (Acts 9:18). Verse 17 connects his being filled with the Spirit with the receiving of his sight. We know that he received his sight prior to his baptism.

No Scripture is to be interpretated in isololation from the totality of Scripture. Practically speaking, a singular and obscure verse is to be subservient to to multiple and clear verses, and not vice versa. For instance, if we find a verse that "on the surface" seems to teach that baptism is required for salvation or that we are saved by works, but then have multiple other verses that teach otherwise, are we to allow the odd verse to alter the clear meaning of the many? NO. The "washing away of sin" in water baptism is only "formal" or symbolic, as Alexander Campbell had said in the McCalla debate. It did not refer to the washing of the soul. This occurred earlier when Paul came to faith in Christ. Water baptism brought no change to the heart and mind of Paul. All inner change had already occurred prior to his water baptism. The Greek aorist participle, epikalesamenos, properly translated means "having called" on the name of the Lord. Paul’s calling on Christ’s name for salvation preceded his water baptism. It is absurd to think that Paul had not yet called upon the name of the Lord and that water baptism is all the same as calling on the name of the Lord.

Eph. 1: 3- In this all spiritual blessing (including forgiveness?) are stated to be “in Christ,” and we are baptized into Christ. (Rom. 6: 3; Gal. 3: 27) Eph. 1: 7- In this verse redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, is stated to be in Him and we are baptized into Him, into Christ.

Stop confusing water baptism with Spirit baptism. We are baptized by one Spirit into one body. (1 Corinthians 12:13). This is NOT water baptism. But in what sense would we be "water" baptized into Christ? In the same sense that the Israelites were "baptized into Moses" (1 Corinthians 10:2). The Israelites were not literally water baptized into the body of Moses yet Moses was their leader then as Christ is now and so Paul is concerning the relation of the Israelites to Moses as he does of our baptism in relation to Christ. You need to rightly divide the word of truth.

Col. 1: 14- Again, redemption, the forgiveness of sins, is stated to be in Christ, and we are baptized into Christ.

Believers are Spirit baptized into the body of Christ (1 Corinthians 12:13) when we believe on the Lord Jesus Christ/believe the gospel (Acts 11:17; Ephesians 1:13) and receive the remission of sins (Acts 10:43; Romans 3:24-26) BEFORE water baptism (Acts 10:47).

Rom. 6: 7- He who has died is freed from sin, but we die when baptized into Christ. (Rom. 6: 6)

Spirit baptism is the reality and water baptism is merely the PICTURE of the reality. You continue to confuse the PICTURE with the reality.

Rom. 6: 17, 18- He who has obeyed that form of teaching is freed from sin, but that form of teaching—death---burial---resurrection, is obeyed when we are baptized. (Rom. 6: 3-6)

We obey that form of teaching and are freed from sin when we choose to believe the gospel (Romans 1:16). Read Romans 10:16 - But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Isaiah says, "Lord, who has believed our report?"

In Romans 6:16, there is a contrast here between servants/slaves. There are only two kinds of servants/slaves in this world, in the spiritual sense; servants/slaves of sin unto death, or servants/slaves of obedience unto righteousness. When we place our faith exclusively in Christ for salvation/believe the gospel by trusting in His finished work of redemption as the all sufficient means of our salvation, we then become "servants of obedience unto righteousness." Being slaves of sin is put in the past tense. Paul goes on in Romans 6:18 - "You have been set free from sin and have become slaves to righteousness."

Notice in Romans 10:10 - For with the heart one believes unto righteousness..

Notice in Romans 4:5 - But to him who does not work but believes on Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith (not works) is accounted for righteousness.

(Eph. 5: 26- Cleansing is associated with the washing of water with the word. This appears to be a reference to baptism in water through the auspices of the word.

Everything to you "appears" to be a reference to baptism in water. THAT'S ALL YOU TALK ABOUT. Notice washing with water by the word. Water is used in the Bible as an emblem of the word of God, and in such uses it is associated with cleansing or washing. Baptism does not avail to cleanse the heart from defilement, but our Lord did say, "Now ye are clean through the word which I have spoken unto you" (John 15:3). So it's not by plain ordinary H20 but by the word. As we have seen elsewhere the water that cleanses (believers/the Church/the body of Christ) on the inside. John 4:10 - Jesus answered and said to her, "If you knew the gift of God, and who it is who says to you, 'Give Me a drink,' you would have asked Him, and He would have given you living water.

John 4:14 - but whoever drinks of the water that I shall give him will never thirst. But the water that I shall give him will become in him a fountain of water springing up into everlasting life.

John 7:37 - On the last day, that great day of the feast, Jesus stood and cried out, saying, "If anyone thirsts, let him come to Me and drink. 38 He who believes in Me, as the Scripture has said, out of his heart will flow rivers of living water." 39 But this He spoke concerning the Spirit..

Heb. 10: 22- Our hearts are sprinkled clean (Heb. 9: 14) from an evil conscience and our bodies are washed with pure water. The later appears to be a reference to baptism in water.

Here you go again. Everything with you is about water baptism. Hebrews 10:22 in the NASB reads - let us draw near with a true heart in full assurance of faith, having our hearts sprinkled from an evil conscience and our bodies washed with pure water. *Notice the order. Reference to this verse as proving regeneration, or the new birth, by water baptism ignores the point of the contrasting of that sprinkling which affects the heart, removing from it an evil conscience, and that washing of the body with pure water. It is the sprinkling (with the Blood of Christ- Hebrews 9:14; I Peter 1:2) which touches the heart. The washing of pure water affects the body. Paul was careful to distinguish between an outward holiness or circumcision, which was of the flesh (Romans 2:28-29) and an inward holiness, which was of the heart. The true Jew, the true child of Abraham (and therefore the true Christian) has the inward circumcision of the heart, not only the outward, and this is accomplished by the "sprinkling of the blood of Christ" (I Peter 1:2), not by a washing in water in the ordinance of water baptism. Even Peter said - "not the removal of the dirt from the flesh" but the answer of a good conscience toward God. Through the resurrection of Jesus Christ (1 Peter 3:21). The writer of Hebrews shows us that no outward ceremony affects the heart (Hebrews 9:13ff.). He would not, and does not contradict himself here by teaching that the washing of the body in water accomplishes an inward cleansing. The former is inward and spiritual, "of the heart" (Romans 2:28-29), and the latter is outward and physical, or "of the flesh" (Romans 2:28-29). The washing of the body in pure water does not present baptism as the means of the cleansing or purifying of the heart. The sprinkling with the Blood of Christ is, and washing our bodies with water is expressly distinguished from sprinkling with the Blood of Christ. Since water baptism is not the means of purifying the heart from sin, it is not the means of regeneration, and it is not absolutely necessary for salvation.

1 Peter 1: 2- When we obey (by repentance and baptism? (Acts 2: 38) Jesus Christ we are sprinkled with the blood of Christ.

When we obey by repentance and believing the gospel (Acts 11:17,18; 15:7-8) we are sprinkled with the blood of Christ. Hearts are purified by FAITH (Acts 15:9) not by water baptism.

1 Peter 1: 22- in obedience to the truth (by repentance and baptism? Acts 2: 38) we purify our souls.

False. By repentance, yes (Acts 3:19). Water baptism is parenthetical in Acts 2:38. In obedience to the truth by FAITH. 1 Peter 1:22 notice - "Purified your souls in obeying the truth" and notice in Acts 15:9 - "Purified their hearts by FAITH." Faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance." Repentance - "change of mind" - new direction of this change of mind - faith in Jesus Christ. Two sides to the same coin. Your obsession with water baptism is absolutely ridiculous! Place your faith in the Savior God, not the water god.

Many on this forum share Mr. MacArthur view. IMO Mr. MacArthur has been less than candid; he has drawn conclusions based on partial truth, cherry picked his references and came to unwarranted conclusions.

That's all you do is cherry pick verses from the Bible, build your doctrine on them, then try and force the rest of Scripture to "conform" to your biased church doctrine.

A more accurate conclusion would be, “Forgiveness of sins is connected with faith which works through repentance and baptism to bring us into contact with the blood of Christ.”

That's not an accurate conclusion at all. Repentance precedes saving faith in Christ and water baptism FOLLOWS repentance/faith/salvation (Acts 3:19; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9). We do not come into literal contact with the blood of Christ in the waters of baptism either.

Thus the NASB interpretation of Acts 2: 38, 39, appears to reflect God’s intent. God bless.

Your interpretation reflects the intent of your biased church doctrine, not God's intent. Here is what reflects God's intent - Faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Mark 1:4; Luke 3:3; Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; 16:31). *Perfect Harmony*

Continue to seek for the truth and God bless

 

[plaintalk]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

Salvation by faith alone
“First, it is quite clear from such passages as Acts 15 and Romans 4 that no external act is necessary for salvation. Salvation is by divine grace through faith alone (Romans 3:22, 24, 25, 26, 28, 30; 4:5; Galatians 2:16; Ephesians 2:8-9; Philippians 3:9, etc.)” John MacArthur- Blog- Is Baptism Necessary For Salvation
Mr. MacArthur gives one view of faith that is common in the Protestant community and common on this forum: Salvation is by divine grace through faith alone. (Eph. 2: 8, 9)
(1) None of the references he cites state that salvation is by grace through faith alone because there are none in the Bible. Many verses state that salvation is through faith; there are no verses that state that salvation is by faith alone. The only verse to speak of faith alone states, “You see a man is justified by works, and not by faith alone.” (James 2: 24)
(2) The idea that salvation is by faith alone appears to be made on the assumption that the works of Eph. 2: 9 includes all works. But there are a number of works of faith that lead to salvation, that occur following faith and prior to salvation. These include calling on the name of the Lord. repentance, baptism, confessing the name of Jesus before men, obedience and the washing of regeneration. (Acts 2: 21; 2 Cor. 7: 10; Mark 16: 16; 1 Peter 3: 21; Rom. 10; 10; Heb. 5: 9; Titus 3: 5)
(3) In addition faith, hope and love abide together at the present time, the greatest of these is love. (1 Cor. 13: 13) All of these factors are essential to salvation and eternal life. (John 5: 24. 1 John 3: 14; James 1: 12; Rom. 8: 24)
(4) Faith without love is meaningless (1 Cor. 13: 2) and faith without works is dead and useless. (James 2: 14, 17, 20)
(5) The “salvation by faith alone” doctrine is incompatible with Acts 2: 38. However this passage is quite compatible with salvation by faith. For by faith we repent and are baptized in the name of Christ for the forgiveness of sins and we are promised the gift of the Holy Spirit. God bless.

 

[plaintalk]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

Acts 2: 38, 39
“If water baptism were necessary for salvation, we would expect to find it stressed whenever the gospel is presented in Scripture. That is not the case, however. Peter mentioned baptism in his sermon on the day of Pentecost (Acts 2:38). However, in his sermon from Solomon's portico in the Temple (Acts 3:12-26), Peter makes no reference to baptism, but links forgiveness of sin to repentance (3:19). If baptism is necessary for the forgiveness of sin, why didn't Peter say so in Acts 3?” John MacArthur, Blog- Is Baptism necessary For Salvation
Response:
In His sovereignty, the Lord has chosen to reveal His will in narrative form as He wills, not according to our expectations. Perhaps this was done to distance those under the new covenant from the Law and its legal format. Under the new covenant we are under grace not law and we are saved through faith not by works of the law. Certainly faith receives great emphasis.
In what has to be one of the greatest understatement, Mr. Mac Arthur says, “Peter mentioned baptism on the day of Pentecost (Acts 2: 38).” Mentioned? He told 3,000 believers who asked, “Brethren, what shall we do?” to repent and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. That sounds very significant to me, not just merely a mentioning! Then when you consider that this is the beginning of the gospel era, it is very significant. Yes, Mr. MacArthur there are “external acts” that we must do to be forgiven and saved from sin and its consequences and to receive the Holy Spirit. (Acts 5: 32)
The Peter tells us in verse 39 that the promises that have just made are for not only the Jews that were present that day but for their children also and then amazingly he states that they are for all them that are afar off, the Gentiles, and then he says so that there can be no misunderstanding, “for as many as the Lord our God shall call to Himself.” That is for everyone whom God calls. For all mankind! Forever!
And then Mr. Mac Arthur has the audacity to question the Lord. “If baptism is necessary for the forgiveness of sin, why didn't Peter say so in Acts 3?” How many times must the Lord say it, if it is received in faith? Is the Lord required to repeat the same promises in every instance. Surprisingly, no two accounts of conversion in the book of Acts are even close to being alike in every detail. Do we establish the validity of a practice by counting the number of times it occurs in conversion accounts or is it established by the context and what is said about it? May God help us all to be truth seekers and not just agenda keepers. God bless.

 

[mailmandan]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

Salvation by faith alone
“First, it is quite clear from such passages as Acts 15 and Romans 4 that no external act is necessary for salvation. Salvation is by divine grace through faith alone (Romans 3:22, 24, 25, 26, 28, 30; 4:5; Galatians 2:16; Ephesians 2:8-9; Philippians 3:9, etc.)” John MacArthur- Blog- Is Baptism Necessary For Salvation

Amen! John MacArthur is correct.

Mr. MacArthur gives one view of faith that is common in the Protestant community and common on this forum: Salvation is by divine grace through faith alone. (Eph. 2: 8, 9)

Notice that Ephesians 2:8,9 clearly states that we are saved by grace through FAITH, NOT WORKS. We are NOT saved through faith AND works. So man is saved by grace through faith (rightly understood) IN CHRIST ALONE. Because of your unbelief, you are unable to grasp the truth.

(1) None of the references he cites state that salvation is by grace through faith alone because there are none in the Bible. Many verses state that salvation is through faith; there are no verses that state that salvation is by faith alone.

The Bible clearly teaches in many many passages of Scripture that we are saved through BELIEF/FAITH "apart from additions or modifications." (Luke 8:12; John 1:12; 3:15,16,18; 6:40,47; 11:25,26; Acts 10:43; 13:39; 16:31; Romans 1:16; 3:22-28; 4:5-6,9,11,13; 5:1; 10:4; Galatians 2:16; 3:14,22,26; Philippians 3:9; 2 Timothy 3:15; Hebrews 10:39; 1 John 5:13 etc..). You don't need to add the word "alone" next to BELIEF/FAITH in each of these passages of Scripture to figure out that the words BELIEF/FAITH "stand alone" in these many many passages of Scripture in connection with receiving eternal life/salvation. Do these passages say faith "plus something else?" NO! So then it's faith (rightly understood) IN CHRIST ALONE.

The only verse to speak of faith alone states, “You see a man is justified by works, and not by faith alone.” (James 2: 24)

James 2:24 has to be the most misunderstood verse in the Bible. This verse is misinterpreted by Roman Catholics, Mormons and those who attend the church of Christ. In the first place, James is not using the word "justified" to mean "accounted as righteous" but is "shown to be righteous." James is discussing the proof of faith (says-claims to have faith but has no works/I will show you my faith by my works), not the initial act of being accounted as righteous with God (Romans 4:2-3). Works bear out the justification that already came by faith. *In James 2:14, we read of one who says-claims he has faith but has no works (to back up his claim). This is not genuine faith, but a bare profession of faith. So when James asks, "Can that faith save him?" He is saying nothing against genuine faith, but only against an empty profession of faith/dead faith. *Please listen closely - *James does not teach that we are saved by works. His concern is to show the reality of the faith professed by the individual (James 2:18) and demonstrate that the faith claimed (James 2:14) by the individual is genuine. Simple!

In the Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible, the Greek word for justified "dikaioo" #1344 is:

1. to render righteous or such he ought to be
2. to show, exhibit, evince, one to be righteous, such as he is and wishes himself to be considered
3. to declare, pronounce, one to be just, righteous, or such as he ought to be

God is said to have been justified by those who were baptized by John the Baptist (Luke 7:29). This act pronounced or declared God to be righteous. It did not make him righteous. The basis or ground for the pronouncement was the fact that God IS righteous. Notice that the NIV reads, "acknowledged that God's way was right.." The ESV reads, "they declared God just.." This is the sense in which God was justified, "shown to be righteous" not accounted as righteous.

Matthew 11:19 "The Son of Man came eating and drinking, and they say, 'Behold, a gluttonous man and a drunkard, a friend of tax-gatherers and sinners!' Yet wisdom is justified/vindicated/shown to be right by her deeds."

The harmony of Ephesians 2:8,9; Romans 4:2-3 and James 2:24 is seen in the differing ways that Paul and James use the term "justified." Paul, when he uses the term, refers to the legal (judicial) act of God by which He accounts the sinner as righteous (Romans 3:24; 5:1). James, however is using the term to describe those who would prove the genuineness of their faith by the works that they do. Man is saved through faith and not works (Ephesians 2:8,9; Titus 3:5; 2 Timothy 1:9); yet genuine faith is vindicated, substantiated, evidenced by works (James 2:14-24). *Please pay close attention - The word "alone" in regards to salvation through faith "in Christ alone" conveys the message that Christ saves us through faith based on the merits of His finished work of redemption "alone" and not on the merits of our works. It is through faith "in Christ alone" (and not by the merits of our works) that we are justified on account of Christ (Romans 3:24; 5:1); yet the faith that justifies is never alone (solitary, unfruitful, barren) if it is genuine (James 2:14-24). *Perfect Harmony.*

(2) The idea that salvation is by faith alone appears to be made on the assumption that the works of Eph. 2: 9 includes all works.

It does include all works. Paul said saved through faith, not works. He did not say saved through faith AND "these works," just not "those works."

But there are a number of works of faith that lead to salvation, that occur following faith and prior to salvation.

Absolutely false. Works of faith are works and we are not saved by works. If your argument was true, then the many, many verses in the Bible that make it clear we are saved through BELIEF/FAITH would be a lie. God forbid!

These include calling on the name of the Lord. repentance, baptism, confessing the name of Jesus before men, obedience and the washing of regeneration. (Acts 2: 21; 2 Cor. 7: 10; Mark 16: 16; 1 Peter 3: 21; Rom. 10; 10; Heb. 5: 9; Titus 3: 5)

You reach this faulty conclusion based on poor semantics and flawed hermeneutics. Calling on the name of the Lord is not an additional requirement to become saved after faith. When you call on the name of the Lord you trust in him to come to your aid. Inherent in our calling is the essential faith that he can and will save you This is not an additional requirement that we accomplish after faith. Repentance is a "change of mind" that precedes saving faith in Christ (Acts 20:21). Water baptism follows faith and salvation (Acts 10:43-47). It's the lack of belief that causes condemnation, not the lack of baptism (Mark 16:16(b); John 3:18). Confessing with our mouth that Jesus is Lord and believing in our heart that God raised Him from the dead are not two separate steps to salvation but are chronologically together. Romans 10:8 - But what does it say? "The word is near you, in your mouth and in your heart" - TOGETHER (that is, the word of faith which we preach): Obedience which follows saving faith in Christ is WORKS and we are NOT saved by works. The washing of regeneration is spiritual washing/purification of the soul that is accomplished by the Holy Spirit at the moment of salvation. The internal washing is not accomplished by plain ordinary H20 but by LIVING WATER (John 4:10,14; 7:37-39).

(3) In addition faith, hope and love abide together at the present time, the greatest of these is love. (1 Cor. 13: 13)

Love is the greater quality of the three because God is love and it outlasts them all. Long after faith and hope are no longer necessary, love will still be the governing principle that controls all that God and his redeemed people are and do.

All of these factors are essential to salvation and eternal life. (John 5: 24. 1 John 3: 14; James 1: 12; Rom. 8: 24)
(4) Faith without love is meaningless (1 Cor. 13: 2) and faith without works is dead and useless. (James 2: 14, 17, 20)

You continue to confuse PRESCRIPTIVE passages of Scripture with DESCRIPTIVE passages of Scripture. Those who believe (PRESCRIPTIVE) have eternal life. We know that we have passed from death to life because (DESCRIPTIVE) - we love the brethren. He who does not love his brother (DESCRIPTIVE) of children of the devil (1 John 3:10). So those who love the brethren and endure temptation is DESCRIPTIVE of BELIEVERS, not unbelievers. Saved by hope does not mean that someone may have faith but no hope so they won't be saved. Unlike the english word "hope," the N.T. word contains no uncertainty; it speaks of something that is certain. Hope - Strong's #1680 elpís (from elpō, "to anticipate, welcome") – properly, expectation of what is sure (certain); hope. Genuine hope is another aspect of faith. If we have saving faith in Christ, then we have this hope. Faith is the substance of things HOPED for.. (Hebrews 11:1). So that being justified by His grace we would be made heirs according to the HOPE of eternal life (Titus 3:7).

(5) The “salvation by faith alone” doctrine is incompatible with Acts 2: 38.

The salvation by faith (in Christ alone) doctrine is perfectly compatible with Acts 2:38 because in Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis. So it's faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) that brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Acts 3:19; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; 16:31). *Perfect Harmony*

However this passage is quite compatible with salvation by faith.

Salvation by water baptism is NOT compatible with salvation by faith because faith is not baptism and faith precedes baptism and we are saved through faith. It's just that simple. Salvation through faith is not salvation through faith and water baptism or salvation through faith and works.

For by faith we repent and are baptized in the name of Christ for the forgiveness of sins and we are promised the gift of the Holy Spirit. God bless.

Through faith, we trust exclusively in Jesus Christ for salvation and receive the forgiveness of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Acts 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; Ephesians 2:8,9). Those who have placed their faith in Christ for salvation (and not in water and works) are saved and have already repented in the process of changing their mind and choosing to place their faith in Christ for salvation. You erroneously place repentance "after" faith and you also confuse acts (such as water baptism) that we accomplish by or "out of faith" with faith itself. What a mess.

Please prayerfully consider everything that I have shared with you and God bless.

 

[mailmandan]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

Acts 2: 38, 39
“If water baptism were necessary for salvation, we would expect to find it stressed whenever the gospel is presented in Scripture. That is not the case, however. Peter mentioned baptism in his sermon on the day of Pentecost (Acts 2:38). However, in his sermon from Solomon's portico in the Temple (Acts 3:12-26), Peter makes no reference to baptism, but links forgiveness of sin to repentance (3:19). If baptism is necessary for the forgiveness of sin, why didn't Peter say so in Acts 3?” John MacArthur, Blog- Is Baptism necessary For Salvation

Amen! Acts 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9 nails the coffin shut on water baptism being absolutely necessary for salvation.

Response:
In His sovereignty, the Lord has chosen to reveal His will in narrative form as He wills, not according to our expectations. Perhaps this was done to distance those under the new covenant from the Law and its legal format. Under the new covenant we are under grace not law and we are saved through faith not by works of the law.

We are saved through faith and not by works in general. For your information, good works fall under the moral aspect of the law (Deuteronomy 6:5; Leviticus 19:18; Matthew 22:37-40; James 2:15-16).

Certainly faith receives great emphasis.

But what you are really saying is that faith is NOT ENOUGH to save us which equates to the OBJECT of our faith (Christ's finished work of redemption) is NOT SUFFICIENT ENOUGH to save us. Then you "add" your works to the gospel.

In what has to be one of the greatest understatement, Mr. Mac Arthur says, “Peter mentioned baptism on the day of Pentecost (Acts 2: 38).” Mentioned? He told 3,000 believers who asked, “Brethren, what shall we do?” to repent and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. That sounds very significant to me, not just merely a mentioning!

The point that John was making is that Peter mentioned baptism in Acts 2:38 but not in Acts 3:19. Don't be so dramatic. Once again, in Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis. Also compare (and don't ignore or twist) the fact that these Gentiles in Acts 10:45 received the gift of the Holy Spirit (compare with Acts 2:38 - the gift of the Holy Spirit) and this was BEFORE water baptism (Acts 10:47).

Then when you consider that this is the beginning of the gospel era, it is very significant.

All Scripture is significant and we must properly harmonize Scripture with Scripture in order to reach the proper conclusion. Unfortunately, you seem more interested in "accommodating the theology of your church" than you do in properly harmonizing Scripture with Scripture.

Yes, Mr. MacArthur there are “external acts” that we must do to be forgiven and saved from sin and its consequences and to receive the Holy Spirit. (Acts 5: 32)

Christ is the ALL-sufficient means of our salvation. There are no external acts/supplements that are necessary "in addition to placing our faith in Christ for salvation" in order to be forgiven and saved from sin (Acts 10:43; 26:18; Ephesians 2:8,9). We obey Him by choosing to believe the gospel (Romans 1:16; 10:16) and that is when we receive the Holy Spirit (Acts 11;17; Ephesians 1:13) Those who refuse to believe the gospel have not and do not obey Him no matter how many "so-called" external acts of obedience that they attempt to conjure up through the flesh in a vain effort to save themselves by works.

The Peter tells us in verse 39 that the promises that have just made are for not only the Jews that were present that day but for their children also and then amazingly he states that they are for all them that are afar off, the Gentiles, and then he says so that there can be no misunderstanding, “for as many as the Lord our God shall call to Himself.” That is for everyone whom God calls. For all mankind! Forever!

And we see the Gentiles also received this promise in Acts 10 in which they believed, received the Holy Spirit and were saved BEFORE water baptism (Acts 10:43-47).

And then Mr. Mac Arthur has the audacity to question the Lord. “If baptism is necessary for the forgiveness of sin, why didn't Peter say so in Acts 3?”

John is not questioning the Lord. He actually read what the Lord said in Acts 3:19 and it was not be baptized and be converted. It was repent and be converted.

How many times must the Lord say it, if it is received in faith? Is the Lord required to repeat the same promises in every instance. Surprisingly, no two accounts of conversion in the book of Acts are even close to being alike in every detail. Do we establish the validity of a practice by counting the number of times it occurs in conversion accounts or is it established by the context and what is said about it? May God help us all to be truth seekers and not just agenda keepers. God bless.

You only seem to be interested in accommodating the agenda of your church and are obviously not a truth seeker. You need to rightly divide the word of truth and properly harmonize Scripture with Scripture. Otherwise, you will continue to distort passages of Scripture in your effort to "patch together" your so-called gospel plan.

One of the most popular arguments which "church of Christ" debaters and writers use in their effort to prove the necessity of baptism before one is saved is the idea that in the Book of Acts baptism is always referred to in connection with a conversion. This is patently false. One writer even went to far as to say there were "no exceptions." Nothing could be further from the truth. This is the type of unscriptural argument that is manufactured by the "Restorationists" in their effort to support their theory on baptism, and is an example of how they "speak where the Bible is silent."

Here are the instances of conversions in Acts where baptism is mentioned:
2:38
8:12
8:37, 38
9:17-18
10:47-48
16:14
16:30-34
18:8
19:5

Now, here are the accounts in Acts which speak of conversions where baptism is NOT mentioned:
4:4
5:14
9:35
9:42
11:21
11:24
Chapters 13 and 14 -- Paul's first journey -- baptism never mentioned.
13:12
13:43
13:48
14:1
14:21
14:27
17:4
17:12
17:34
19:17-20
28:23, 24

Notice that not once is baptism "specifically mentioned" in the conversions on Paul's first missionary journey. Don't misunderstand me -- I am not saying that baptism was not "eventually" administered, but I am simply denying the false assertion that baptism is "specifically mentioned" in every case or instance of conversions. Some converts are not mentioned by name, but others are -- such as Sergius Paul (13:7, 12), Dionysius and Damaris (17:34).

*The book of Acts leaves no doubt what the Lord commands us to do in order to be saved (Acts 4:4; 5:14; 10:43; 13:39; 15:9; 16:31; 17:12; 17:34; 26:18). We are saved the moment that we BELIEVE (trust, rely) in Christ alone for salvation.

Please prayerfully consider the truth and God bless.

 

[plaintalk]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

According to the Scriptures those that received the word were baptized. (Acts 2: 41) When they were baptized in water, in the name of Christ, they were baptized into Christ. IMO water is the medium, not Jesus; the result is, however, being "in Christ." Baptism with the Spirit appears to be different, the Spirit is the medium. God bless.

 

[plaintalk]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

Paul didn't think lightly about baptism. He, himself, was baptized to wash away his sins, calling on the name of the Lord. (Acts 22: 16)
God bless.

 

[plaintalk]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

IMO water is there. When we obey (repentance and baptism?) Jesus Christ, we are sprinkled with the blood of Christ (1 Peter 1: 2). cleansing our conscience fro dead works (Heb. 9: 14), as our bodies are washed with pure water, our hearts are sprinkled clean with the blood of Christ (Heb 10; 22). Redemption, the forgiveness of sins is "in Christ" as are all spiritual blessings. (Eph. 1: 3) but we are placed "in Christ" through baptism in water. God bless.

 

[plaintalk]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

Human Volition and Faith
The apologists for the “faith alone” doctrine tell us that we obey the gospel by believing. After all we know that God commands us to believe, so when we obey the command, we believe. Simple? We must understand that the “faith alone” proponents have a problem with such verses as Hebrews 5: 9 or Romans 2: 8. If they admit “obey” in the normal sense of the term, they repudiate the “faith alone” doctrine because these two verses are speaking about eternal salvation on the one hand and wrath and indignation on the other. Unwittingly they make faith out to be a product of human volition. Is that true?
However when we look at what the Scriptures say about faith, a whole different picture begins to emerge. Faith is a work of God. (John 6: 29) Faith is by the grace of God. (Acts 18: 27) Faith is a gift of God. (Rom. 12: 3) Those that were appointed to eternal life believed. (Acts 13: 48) Faith without love is nothing. (1 Cor. 13: 2) Faith without obedience is dead and useless. (James 2: 17, 22) Yet paradoxically faith is a response of the heart of man. (Rom 10: 10) How do all these things fit together?
Coming to faith, at any level, is not primarily an act of human volition although obedience and love are included. Jesus sent the Holy Spirit to convict the world, not just the elect, of sin, righteousness and judgement (John 16: 8- 11) even though we were all dead in our sins. The only sensible action for those who are convicted of sin, under the sentence of death, destined for judgement, is to come to the Righteous One who invites us. But before we begin to commend ourselves for this good decision, we must remember that no one can come to Him unless they are drawn by God. (John 6: 44; 12: 32) The love of God, demonstrated in the offering of His son (John 3: 16), is the primary reason we come to Jesus. This love is poured out by the Holy Spirit (Rom. 5: 5) drawing us to Him but also begins to create love within us, we love because he first loved us. (1 John 4: 19)
Those that come after Jesus may be surprised to find that He enjoins three things: denial of self, death to self and following Him- not some great act of human volition. (Matt. 16: 24, 25) God loves a contrite, humble heart. Can this be the quality He seeks and foresaw in the ones whom He would elect to eternal life? At any rate, we know that God gives grace to the humble but resists the proud. (1 Pet. 5: 5; James 4: 6) He opens the heart of those who will empty themselves to respond to the gospel, the word of truth, in faith and love. (Acts 16: 14) Faith is received by the heart of man as a gift of God. These who receive Jesus by believing in His name are begotten by God and they are given the right to become children of God. (John 1: 12,13) This is the second level of faith, a faith mingled with love.
“Brethren, what shall we do?” Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins, and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. (Acts 2: 38, 39) This is the promise that governs the lives of all who have been begotten by God. Is it then our obedience that claims the day, that merits forgiveness and salvation. Certainly not. James tells us that faith works with our works of faith (obedience), and as a result of works, our faith is perfected. The righteous shall live by faith! This is the third level of faith, the faith that saves, a loving, obedient faith.
Before we close we need to note that repentance is a gift of God (Acts 11: 18; 2 Tim. 2: 25) and that we repent by the grace of God; His goodness and kindness leads us to repentance. (Rom. 2: 4) And we need to note that baptism is contingent upon faith in God (Acts 8: 36- 38), it is a work of faith given by God. We obey God out of love for Him. (John 14: 15) All the works of faith that lead to salvation are works of God, they are not our works; they are by the grace of God, they are not works of merit; they are gifts from God, given to us to perfect our faith.
Conclusion: While it may appear, at first blush, that faith is a simple act of obedience, an act of human volition, the Scriptures do not bear that thought out. On the contrary, we find that faith is a work of God, not a work of man; faith is by grace, not by merit; faith is a gift of God, not a reward bestowed on man because of his effort. We believe the gospel by agreeing to the truth that Jesus died for our sins, was buried and arose from the dead on the third day. We obey the gospel by participating in His death, burial and resurrection during baptism in the name of Jesus. Mark 16: 15, 16 is an example of both believing the gospel and obeying the gospel in baptism. God bless.

 

[mailmandan]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

According to the Scriptures those that received the word were baptized. (Acts 2: 41) When they were baptized in water, in the name of Christ, they were baptized into Christ. IMO water is the medium, not Jesus; the result is, however, being "in Christ." Baptism with the Spirit appears to be different, the Spirit is the medium. God bless.

Unfortunately, I see that everything I explained to you in previous posts just continues to go right over your head. Those who received his word (through repentance/faith) were AFTERWARDS baptized. Just as we receive Him (Christ) and become children of God when we believe in His Name (John 1:12) BEFORE water baptism. We are baptized by one Spirit into one body...the body of Christ, which is Spirit baptism, not water baptism (1 Corinthians 12:13). The result is being "in Christ." Being water baptized into or unto Christ involves "identification" and not placement into the body of Christ, which previously took place when we believed the gospel (Acts 11:17; Ephesians 1:13). Just as 1 Corinthians 10:2 says that all (the Israelites) were "baptized into or unto Moses" in the cloud and in the sea, but this does not mean they were literally water baptized into the body of Moses.

It's time for you to repent and believe the gospel. Please prayerfully consider the truth and God bless.

 

[mailmandan]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

Paul didn't think lightly about baptism. He, himself, was baptized to wash away his sins, calling on the name of the Lord. (Acts 22: 16)
God bless.

Baptism here pictures the washing away of sins by the blood of Christ, but it does not literally wash away our sins, contrary to your conclusion. I already thoroughly explained this to you in post #423.

It's time for you to repent and believe the gospel. Please prayerfully consider the truth and God bless.

 

[mailmandan]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

IMO water is there. When we obey (repentance and baptism?) Jesus Christ, we are sprinkled with the blood of Christ (1 Peter 1: 2). cleansing our conscience fro dead works (Heb. 9: 14), as our bodies are washed with pure water, our hearts are sprinkled clean with the blood of Christ (Heb 10; 22). Redemption, the forgiveness of sins is "in Christ" as are all spiritual blessings. (Eph. 1: 3) but we are placed "in Christ" through baptism in water. God bless.

There is a difference between when we obey TO BECOME SAVED (Acts 10:43) and when we obey AFTER WE HAVE BEEN SAVED THROUGH FAITH (Acts 10:48). Repentance and remission of sins precedes water baptism (Luke 24:47; Acts 3:19; Acts 11:17,18).

Hebrews 10:22 in the NASB reads - let us draw near with a true heart in full assurance of faith, having our hearts sprinkled from an evil conscience and our bodies washed with pure water. *Notice the order. Reference to this verse as proving regeneration, or the new birth, by water baptism ignores the point of the contrasting of that sprinkling which affects the heart, removing from it an evil conscience, and that washing of the body with pure water. It is the sprinkling (with the Blood of Christ - Hebrews 9:14; I Peter 1:2) which touches the heart. The washing of pure water affects the body. Paul was careful to distinguish between an outward holiness or circumcision, which was of the flesh (Romans 2:28-29) and an inward holiness, which was of the heart.

We are placed "in Christ" (in the body of Christ) when we receive Spirit baptism, not water baptism (1 Corinthians 12:13). Ephesians 1:13 - In Him, you also, after listening to the message of truth, the gospel of your salvation - having also believed, you were sealed in Him with the Holy Spirit of promise.

Acts 10:47 - "Can anyone forbid water, that these should not be baptized who have received the Holy Spirit just as we have?" *Received the Holy Spirit and placed into the body of Christ BEFORE water baptism.

Ephesians 2:5 - even when we were dead in trespasses, made us alive together with Christ (by grace you have been saved), 6 and raised us up together, and made us sit together in the heavenly places in Christ Jesus, 7 that in the ages to come He might show the exceeding riches of His grace in His kindness toward us in Christ Jesus. 8 For by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God, 9 not of works, lest anyone should boast.

Acts 26:18 - to open their eyes, in order to turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan to God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins and an inheritance among those who are sanctified by faith in Me.

It's time for you to repent and believe the gospel. Please prayerfully consider the truth and God bless.

 

[valiant]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins, and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. (Acts 2: 38, 39)

We should note here two things.

Firstly that this is not a doctrinal statement. It is an appeal at the end of an evangelistic sermon. It assumes faith in the Lord Jesus Christ, and tells them what they must now do. Change their minds and identify themselves openly with Jesus Christ. . Thus he is saying what they must do if they have faith in Jesus Christ as the Messiah. They must repent, that is change their minds about Jesus Christ and look to Him for salvation. Then they must demonstrate that faith by being baptised in the name of Jesus Christ. This was a huge step to take. Among their contemporaries it meant that they were identifying themselves with those who believed in Jesus Christ as the Messiah. It branded them as Jesus Messiah men. Their salvation comes from their commitment to Jesus Christ in faith, not from their outward acts.

Secondly that the plural 'repent (p) --- for the forgiveness of your (p) sins, undoubtedly distinguishes these phrases from 'and be thou baptised' (s). It is the turning to the Messiah that brings forgiveness of sins. Not the baptism. The baptism is an indication of that turning.

 

[valiant]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

Paul didn't think lightly about baptism. He, himself, was baptized to wash away his sins, calling on the name of the Lord. (Acts 22: 16)
God bless.

This is in fact a misrepresentation of what Ananias said. What he literally said was , 'rising be baptised, and calling on the name of the Lord wash away your sins.' In other words the washing away of sins results from calling on the name of the Lord, of which baptism was a picture.

It should be noted that there is no clear reference elsewhere in the NT to baptism as cleansing or washing away sins. Baptism signified dying with Christ and rising with Him. It signified the reception of the Holy Spirit. But nowhere else is it said to cleanse.

Furthermore we must ask whether these words are 'the inspired word of God'. That is not doubting that they are included in inspired Scripture, but inspired Scripture constantly gives words spoken by people which are clearly not to be seen as inspired. At what point do we decide whether the words spoken are true?

Ananias was certainly sent to Paul by God but that is no guarantee that everything he said was inspired Scripture. That being so we should beware of basing doctrines on his words unless we have evidence elsewhere in Scripture for their truth. He was not an Apostle. His words portrayed the general thinking of his own group rather than Apostolic truth. But that is another question.

 

[p_rehbein]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

Over four hundred comments........and, I'm sure the arguments on both sides have already been made, so I'm not doing all that reading.

Suffice to say: When the "Title" of the thread is an inaccurate interpretation of Scripture, why bother to read the rest?

 

[mailmandan]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

Human Volition and Faith

The apologists for the “faith alone” doctrine tell us that we obey the gospel by believing. After all we know that God commands us to believe, so when we obey the command, we believe. Simple?

It is simple. Romans 10:16 - But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Isaiah says, "Lord, who has believed our report?" We obey the gospel by choosing to believe the gospel and we are saved the moment that we believe the gospel (Romans 1:16). *You still need to repent and believe the gospel.

We must understand that the “faith alone” proponents have a problem with such verses as Hebrews 5: 9 or Romans 2: 8. If they admit “obey” in the normal sense of the term, they repudiate the “faith alone” doctrine because these two verses are speaking about eternal salvation on the one hand and wrath and indignation on the other. Unwittingly they make faith out to be a product of human volition. Is that true?

Those who believe in salvation through "faith IN CHRIST ALONE" (not to be confused with an "empty profession of faith/dead faith" that remains alone - "barren of works") don't have a problem with Hebrews 5:9 or Romans 2:8 but works salvationists are confused by Hebrews 5:9 and Romans 2:8. As I have already explained to you before, Only believers have obeyed Him by choosing to believe the gospel (Romans 1:16) in order to become saved, and only believers obey Him after they have been saved through faith by keeping His commandments and practicing righteousness (1 John 2:3; 3:9,10). *In either sense, only believers obey Him.* Unbelievers have not obeyed Him by refusing to believe the gospel (Romans 10:16) and without faith its impossible to please God (Hebrews 11:6), so unbelievers do not obey Him no matter how much "so-called" obedience that they attempt to conjure up through the flesh in a vain effort to receive salvation based on their works. *So in either sense, unbelievers do not obey Him.*

In Romans 2:7, "patient continuance in well doing, seeking for glory, honor, and immortality;" is not at all set forth as the means of their procuring eternal life, but as a description of those to whom God does render life eternal. Notice that ALL who receive eternal life are described as such, everyone who does good (vs. 10) as a RESULT of being saved. Good deeds flow from a heart that is saved and evil deeds flow from a heart that is unsaved. Verse 8 - but to those who are self-seeking and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness--indignation and wrath. Notice that ALL who do not receive eternal life are described as such, everyone who does evil (vs. 9). What those passages convey is that it's not the good deeds themselves which are the basis or means of our salvation, but the type of deeds expose whether our heart was saved, or not. Good deeds are produced out of faith, thus "everyone who does good." Deeds produced without faith are tainted with sin, thus "everyone who does evil." Without faith it is impossible to please God. You still just don't get it.

However when we look at what the Scriptures say about faith, a whole different picture begins to emerge. Faith is a work of God. (John 6: 29)

John 6:28 - Then they said to Him, "What shall we do, that we may work the works of God?" 29 Jesus answered and said to them, "This is the work of God/what God requires, that you believe in Him whom He sent." The "work of God" does not mean we set back passively and God forces us to believe or that faith is just another work in a series of works in a quest to receive salvation by works.

Faith is by the grace of God. (Acts 18: 27) Faith is a gift of God. (Rom. 12: 3) Those that were appointed to eternal life believed. (Acts 13: 48) Faith without love is nothing. (1 Cor. 13: 2) Faith without obedience is dead and useless. (James 2: 17, 22) Yet paradoxically faith is a response of the heart of man. (Rom 10: 10) How do all these things fit together?

It is by grace that we have been saved through faith. Grace is God's part and faith is man's part. God draws us and enables us, but He does not force us to believe. The character of genuine faith is love and the fruit of genuine faith is obedience/good works. That's how all of those things fit together. It's not about salvation by works, as you teach.

Coming to faith, at any level, is not primarily an act of human volition although obedience and love are included.

We are saved through faith, then we receive the love of God in our hearts by the Holy Spirit (Romans 5:5) and obedience/good works are produced out of faith. Saved through faith, not works, created in Christ Jesus unto good works.

Jesus sent the Holy Spirit to convict the world, not just the elect, of sin, righteousness and judgement (John 16: 8- 11) even though we were all dead in our sins. The only sensible action for those who are convicted of sin, under the sentence of death, destined for judgement, is to come to the Righteous One who invites us.

It is tragic that human pride will not allow works salvationists to come to the Righteous One. Their hands are full of their works and they will not let go in order to take hold of Christ through faith.

But before we begin to commend ourselves for this good decision, we must remember that no one can come to Him unless they are drawn by God. (John 6: 44; 12: 32)

Amen! God draws us (John 6:44) and enables us (John 6:65) but WE must CHOOSE to believe. Too many believe/trust in their works for salvation and not exclusively in Christ.

The love of God, demonstrated in the offering of His son (John 3: 16), is the primary reason we come to Jesus. This love is poured out by the Holy Spirit (Rom. 5: 5) drawing us to Him but also begins to create love within us, we love because he first loved us. (1 John 4: 19)

God has poured out His love into our (believers) hearts by the Holy Spirit, whom He has given us and yes, we love because He first loved us. We don't conjure up agape love apart from God.

Those that come after Jesus may be surprised to find that He enjoins three things: denial of self, death to self and following Him - not some great act of human volition. (Matt. 16: 24, 25) God loves a contrite, humble heart. Can this be the quality He seeks and foresaw in the ones whom He would elect to eternal life? At any rate, we know that God gives grace to the humble but resists the proud. (1 Pet. 5: 5; James 4: 6) He opens the heart of those who will empty themselves to respond to the gospel, the word of truth, in faith and love. (Acts 16: 14) Faith is received by the heart of man as a gift of God. These who receive Jesus by believing in His name are begotten by God and they are given the right to become children of God. (John 1: 12,13) This is the second level of faith, a faith mingled with love.

Those who trust in works for salvation have not yet come to denial of self, death to self and are following their church, not Him. A humble, contrite heart does not refuse to repent and believe the gospel. Those who receive Jesus by believing in His name are begotten by God and they are given the right to become (actually do become) children of God. (John 1:12,13)

“Brethren, what shall we do?” Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins, and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. (Acts 2: 38, 39) This is the promise that governs the lives of all who have been begotten by God. Is it then our obedience that claims the day, that merits forgiveness and salvation. Certainly not. James tells us that faith works with our works of faith (obedience), and as a result of works, our faith is perfected. The righteous shall live by faith! This is the third level of faith, the faith that saves, a loving, obedient faith.

The Bible does not talk about first and second levels of faith and the third level being faith that saves. Faith works through love and obedience/good works flows from saving faith and does not create saving faith (Ephesians 2:5-10). You still have it backwards and your obsession with Acts 2:38 is ridiculous. In Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis. Also compare the fact that these Gentiles in Acts 10:45 received the gift of the Holy Spirit (compare with Acts 2:38 - the gift of the Holy Spirit) and this was BEFORE water baptism (Acts 10:47).

Faith perfected by works means bring to maturity, carry to the end, to complete like love in 1 John 4:18. It doesn't mean we are finally saved based on our works after we produce them. When Abraham performed the good work in Genesis 22; he fulfilled the expectations created by the pronouncement of his faith in Genesis 15:6. The Scripture was fulfilled in vindicating or demonstrating that Abraham believed God and was accounted as righteous. Abraham's faith was accounted for righteousness because of his faith (Genesis 15:6) long before he offered up Isaac on the altar and demonstrated the reality of his faith in Genesis 22.

Before we close we need to note that repentance is a gift of God (Acts 11: 18; 2 Tim. 2: 25) and that we repent by the grace of God; His goodness and kindness leads us to repentance. (Rom. 2: 4) And we need to note that baptism is contingent upon faith in God (Acts 8: 36- 38), it is a work of faith given by God.

Faith is not baptism and faith precedes baptism and we are saved through faith. It's just that simple. Baptism FOLLOWS repentance/faith/salvation (Acts 3:19; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9).

We obey God out of love for Him. (John 14: 15)

Yes and AFTER we have been saved through FAITH.

All the works of faith that lead to salvation are works of God, they are not our works; they are by the grace of God, they are not works of merit; they are gifts from God, given to us to perfect our faith.

Works do not lead to salvation. They are produced out of faith by those who are saved. You just can't figure that out. "Perfect our faith" does not mean saved by works. Abraham was saved through faith, not works (Genesis 15:6) many years before his work of offering up Isaac in Genesis 22. Also see Romans 4:2-6.

Conclusion: While it may appear, at first blush, that faith is a simple act of obedience, an act of human volition, the Scriptures do not bear that thought out. On the contrary, we find that faith is a work of God, not a work of man; faith is by grace, not by merit; faith is a gift of God, not a reward bestowed on man because of his effort.

Faith that saves TRUSTS EXCLUSIVELY IN JESUS CHRIST FOR SALVATION and NOT IN WORKS. "Work of God" does not mean that God zaps us with saving faith as we passively don't choose to believe the gospel. Man chooses to believe. By man refusing to believe the gospel man has refused to obey the gospel (Romans 10:16). There is human responsibility.

We believe the gospel by agreeing to the truth that Jesus died for our sins, was buried and arose from the dead on the third day.

It's not enough to simply believe that the death, burial and resurrection of Christ "happened." Even the devils believe that. We must also TRUST EXCLUSIVELY IN THE DEATH, BURIAL AND RESURRECTION OF CHRIST AS THE ALL-SUFFICIENT MEANS OF OUR SALVATION. Trusting in "water and works" for salvation is not trusting exclusively in Christ.

We obey the gospel by participating in His death, burial and resurrection during baptism in the name of Jesus. Mark 16: 15, 16 is an example of both believing the gospel and obeying the gospel in baptism. God bless.

That's false. The gospel is the "good news" of the death, burial and resurrection of Christ (1 Corinthians 15:1-4) and is the power of God unto salvation to everyone who BELIEVES.. (Romans 1:16). We obey the gospel by choosing to believe the gospel (Romans 10:16) by TRUSTING EXCLUSIVELY IN THE DEATH, BURIAL AND RESURRECTION OF CHRIST AS THE ALL-SUFFICIENT MEANS OF OUR SALVATION. Are you ready to repent and believe the gospel? Getting water baptized AFTER we believe the gospel and receive salvation (Acts 10:43-47) is an act of obedience that FOLLOWS obeying the gospel by choosing to believe the gospel. Good works in general are acts of obedience that FOLLOW obeying the gospel by choosing to believe the gospel.

Mark 16:16 - He who has believed and has been baptized shall be saved (general cases without making a qualification for the unusual case of someone who believes but is not baptized) but he who does not believe will be condemned. The omission of baptized with "does not believe" shows that Jesus does not make baptism absolutely essential to salvation. Condemnation rests on unbelief, not on a lack of baptism. So salvation rests on belief. NOWHERE does the Bible say "baptized or condemned." If water baptism is absolutely required for salvation, then why did Jesus not mention it in the following verses? (3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26). What is the ONE requirement that Jesus mentions 9 different times in each of these complete statements? BELIEVES. *What happened to baptism? *Hermeneutics. John 3:18 - He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who (is not water baptized? - NO) does not believe is condemned already, because he has not (been water baptized? - NO) because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

It's time for you to repent and believe the gospel. Please prayerfully consider the truth and God bless.

 

[plaintalk]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

Making Disciples
[SUP]18 [/SUP]And Jesus came up and spoke to them, saying, “All authority has been given to Me in heaven and on earth. [SUP]19 [/SUP]Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit, [SUP]20 [/SUP]teaching them to observe all that I commanded you; and lo, I am with you always, even to the end of the age.” (Matt. 28: 18- 20) NASB
IMO, Jesus instructed His disciples to make disciples of all nations by baptizing them in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit and by teaching them to observe all that I commanded you. Mailmandan replied that I was wrong, disciples are made first (when one comes to faith?) and then they are baptized and taught. These verses say nothing about making disciples by faith although I am certainly not denying that faith is involved in the process. Sometimes faith is not the primary emphasis even though it is implied from other Scriptures. The context of the verses in the NASB translation leads one to believe that baptizing and teaching are the means by which disciples are made, and of course, though not mentioned, this is through faith. No other factors are mentioned.
Dr. Daniel B. Wallace in his Greek Grammar, Beyond the Basics, pg. 645, comments about these verses, “Finally the other two participles (Baptizontes, didaskontes) should not be taken at attendant circumstance. First, they do not fit the normal pattern for attendant circumstance participles (they are present tense and follow the main verb). And second, they obviously make good sense as participles of means i.e. the means by which the disciples were to make disciples was to baptize and then to teach.”
Conclusion: Disciples are made when by faith they are baptized in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit and when by faith they are taught to observe all things commanded by our Lord. God bless.
For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision means anything, but faith working through love. (Gal. 5: 6)

 

[plaintalk]

Re: Since Acts 2:38 teaches that the baptism commanded is "for the remission of sins,

CALLING ON THE NAME OF THE LORD
‘And it shall be that everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved.’ (Acts 2:21) NASB Many on this forum tell us that salvation is by grace through faith alone yet here we have a factor that saves. To resolve their problem they claim that calling on the name of the Lord has to do with coming to faith yet the following verses tell us that faith precedes calling on the name of the Lord
[SUP]13 [/SUP]for “Whoever will call on the name of the Lord will be saved.” [SUP]14 [/SUP]How then will they call on Him in whom they have not believed? How will they believe in Him whom they have not heard? And how will they hear without a preacher? (Rom. 10: 13, 14) NASB
[SUP]16 [/SUP]Now why do you delay? Get up and be baptized, and wash away your sins, calling on His name. (Acts 22: 16) NASB This verse tells us that calling on the name of the Lord has to do with baptism and the forgiveness of sins, not coming to faith. If that is true, what are we asking for when we are baptized, calling on His name?
[SUP]21 [/SUP]Corresponding to that, baptism now saves you—not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience—through the resurrection of Jesus Christ, (1 Peter 3: 21) NASB This verse tells us that when we are baptized, we are calling on the name of the Lord, appealing to God to give us a good conscience—forgiveness of our sins—as He has promised to do. (Acts 2: 38, 39) Friends, if we are believers, we need to repent and be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ, calling on His name, for the forgiveness of sin. When we do, we are sprinkled with the blood of Christ (1 Peter 1: 2; Heb. 9: 14; 10: 22), cleansing us from sin, and given the gift of the Holy Spirit for regeneration and renewal.
Yes, my friends we are saved by the grace of God through faith, when that faith obeys by repentance and baptism, calling on the name of the Lord. God bless.