An Often Overlooked Sign of the Last Days

[KJV1611]

again, there is no english word to translate the aorist verb.. Both past tense, and aorist greek verbs have been translated in past tense.. A past tense greek word is not equal to an aorist greek word. an aorist has more meaning.

Past means just that, Past

Aorist means something that started in the past and continues. ie it is more than just past

You have no argument, so stop.

The interpretors did the best they could.. They did not have an english equivilent.. Thats why there is no perfect english text.

Please lets not make the a KJV argument, those are old. and this is not the place we have enough of those threads.

This has nothing to do with the KJV argument, you're going against what every bible says.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

If there is no exact English equivalent then why are you trying to make it present tense when you're going against practically every bible? I can tell you why... it doesn't fit your preconcieved ideas so you change it.

Aorist is niether past or present.

Thats the problem. both would be bad translations

But then thats the problem. the enlish language is flawed. There is a reason God used the greek and not english, it is a far superior language..

 

[John146]

Romans 16:25, "Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began,"

Romans 2:16, "In the day when God shall judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ according to my gospel."

2 Timothy 2:8, "Remember that Jesus Christ of the seed of David was raised from the dead according to my gospel:"

Is the Holy Spirit wrong here or are these more bad translations? I know Jesus revealed this gospel to Paul because it had been hid and not revealed yet, so under the moving of the Holy Spirit, Paul calls it "my gospel."

so paul made up the gospel. and it was about him?

At the end of the age, what do you think jesus was talking about in Matt 24. The disciples asked, when will these things *the destruction of the temple) be, and the signs of the end of the age, and your return..

No private interpretation. just making the word say what it says.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

This has nothing to do with the KJV argument, you're going against what every bible says.

No I am not, because no greek bible says that (wink) nor did Pauls origional letter

They used the aorist verb, not the past tense verb..

It was never past tense, unti the english interpretors tried to interpret it to their own language..

Nice try.

 

[John146]

Could you just go through the Bible and make all the necessary changes and give us a translation we can trust? That's what I need.

And then there's the possibility that the past tense was chosen in those translations to fit preconceived theology.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Romans 16:25, "Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began,"

Romans 2:16, "In the day when God shall judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ according to my gospel."

2 Timothy 2:8, "Remember that Jesus Christ of the seed of David was raised from the dead according to my gospel:"

Is the Holy Spirit wrong here or are these more bad translations? I know Jesus revealed this gospel to Paul because it had been hid and not revealed yet, so under the moving of the Holy Spirit, Paul calls it "my gospel."

so paul taught a different gospel than say Peter, or James or John? God did not reveal it to them What did they preach for three years before they even met paul?

Paul said it was my Gospel. as apposed to the gospel the jews were trying to spread.. He did not declare it ws HIS Gospel..

I know what paul meant,, Paul never meant it to be HIS gospel (as in his alone) it belonged to Christ, who was the head, Paul was just one of the cornerstones..

If your trying to argue this,, How can anything else you argue be trusted.. You have no open mind, your just trying to prove yourself right at all cost.

 

[KJV1611]

Aorist is niether past or present.

Thats the problem. both would be bad translations

But then thats the problem. the enlish language is flawed. There is a reason God used the greek and not english, it is a far superior language..

So what does it say in the Greek?

 

[HeRoseFromTheDead]

The aorist can be a one time event in the past if used in the indicative or it can be used to show as a simple, collective whole.

For example: "God...made us alive together with Christ." Eph 2:5 = indicative - which means a one time event in the past

This is an example of where the aorist can be translated as English indefinite, and it really makes more sense that way - GOD makes us alive together in Christ.

 

[HeRoseFromTheDead]

Could you just go through the Bible and make all the necessary changes and give us a translation we can trust? That's what I need.

Me too. That's why I use an interlinear.

 

[KJV1611]

Could someone please explain what it said in the Greek? In plain English so that I can understand it.

 

[John146]

Can someone please explain what "every creature under heaven" means? Is this a bad translation. Does it really mean every creature or every creature in the Roman empire?

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Could you just go through the Bible and make all the necessary changes and give us a translation we can trust? That's what I need.

we could, but it would no longer be a word for word translation, It would have to be an expanded translation, and you kjv onliers would get mad at that and use that as an excuse.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

So what does it say in the Greek?

what does an aorist verb mean? Have you ever looked it up?

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Could someone please explain what it said in the Greek? In plain English so that I can understand it.

What you can't do the work yourself? Again, Have you ever looked up what an aorist tense verb means??

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Me too. That's why I use an interlinear.

even they can be flawed.

 

[KJV1611]

What you can't do the work yourself? Again, Have you ever looked up what an aorist tense verb means??

I'm just asking for you to tell me what the Greek reader comes away with when he reads the verse.

 

[John146]

Would you say your knowledge is superior to the KJV translators?

we could, but it would no longer be a word for word translation, It would have to be an expanded translation, and you kjv onliers would get mad at that and use that as an excuse.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Would you say your knowledge is superior to the KJV translators?

The KJV Translaters did a word for word translation.

You asked for an accurate translation.

There is a difference.

You can not translate an aorist vern word for word. there is no english equivilent, so you have to use what you think is best, or make it not a word for word translation..

 

[eternally-gratefull]

I'm just asking for you to tell me what the Greek reader comes away with when he reads the verse.

well the first step would be to find out what a aorist tense verb means..

How do you know what past tense english means? Because you were taught what it means..

So how do you do the same for an aorist verb? You study what it means.

Can you do this? I am trying to help you.. it does no good if I do all the work for you.

 

[John146]

Can you please explain what "every creature under heaven" means? Is this a bad translation? Does it really mean every creature or does it mean every creature in the Roman empire?

The KJV Translaters did a word for word translation.

You asked for an accurate translation.

There is a difference.

You can not translate an aorist vern word for word. there is no english equivilent, so you have to use what you think is best, or make it not a word for word translation..