I will try to answer: You are correct that the examples in Acts show that when people accepted Christ as their savior; they were filled with the gift of holy Spirit; the evidence was speaking in tongues . . . the only thing that I would add is that in Acts 19 - the comparison of being baptized by John (water) and being baptized Jesus (living water, i.e. holy Spirit) is shown. I wouldn't say that "this would be the measure (speaking in tongues) to receive the holy Spirit" but that speaking in tongues is the outward manifestation of one having RECEIVED the gift of holy Spirit. Does that mean that believers who do not speak in tongues have not received the gift of holy Spirit? NO . . . Acts 2:38 says - Repent and be baptized for the remission of sins and you shall receive the gift of holy Spirit . . . so when someone confesses Jesus Christ as Lord and believes in their heart that God raised him from the dead - they are saved, baptized in living water, and have received the gift of holy Spirit . . . Period. The question would be - can a gift lie dormant and never be used? or can one use the gift given to them? There ya go . . . For an easy example: I can give someone a light bulb - that light bulb has two manifestations - light and heat . . . but unless it is plugged into an electrical current - that light bulb is just that . . . a light bulb with no power. (I know - pretty limp example!)
Being born again of the Spirit = being baptized with holy Spirit = being filled with the Spirit . . . all one and the same.
This last paragraph is a little confusing to me . . . I'm not understanding what it is exactly you are saying.
Dear peacefullbeliever, thank you for reply.
I will try to answer: You are correct that the examples in Acts show that when people accepted Christ as their savior; they were filled with the gift of holy Spirit; the evidence was speaking in tongues
I meant this examples as unique examples with a special purpose, as i wrote before and not as an example for all believers!
I wouldn't say that "this would be the measure (speaking in tongues) to receive the holy Spirit" but that speaking in tongues is the outward manifestation of one having RECEIVED the gift of holy Spirit. Does that mean that believers who do not speak in tongues have not received the gift of holy Spirit? NO . . . Acts 2:38 says - Repent and be baptized for the remission of sins and you shall receive the gift of holy Spirit .
What then is different, if speaking in tongues the outward manifestation of one having received the gift of holy Spirit to what i said? If someone has received the gift of the holy spirit and cant speak in tongues, he has not the holy spirit.
This is a clear fact according the doctrine of pentecostals/charismatics.
Being born again of the Spirit = being baptized with holy Spirit = being filled with the Spirit . . . all one and the same.
If this is the same, where it is written, that a sign of this is speaking in tongues, as the pentecost doctrine teaches?
This last paragraph is a little confusing to me . . . I'm not understanding what it is exactly you are saying.
Well, i met charismatics which used Joel 3 as scripture proof for the charismatic movement
Ok, time to sleep now.
wishing you a happy ressuraction feast of our Lord Jesus