"The disciples came to him and asked, “Why do you speak to the people in parables?”
He replied, “Because the knowledge of the secrets of the kingdom of heaven has been given to you, but not to them. Whoever has will be given more, and they will have an abundance. Whoever does not have, even what they have will be taken from them. This is why I speak to them in parables: Though seeing, they do not see; though hearing, they do not hear or understand.
Jesus spoke parables to that generation of Israel. But to the disciples and therefore all believers', Jesus said, "the knowledge of the secrets of the kingdom has been given to you." Most of the parables that Jesus spoke to the crowd, the meaning was told to the disciples. Therefore, No, Jesus did not teach many mature Christians out there only in parables.
Let's see if the above stands up as true: Scripture states that, along with the rich man, all those who end up in Hades will remain there in torment until the end of the thousand year reign of Christ. That means that people have been accumulating in there from the beginning of history. At the end of that thousand years, they are resurrected and stand before God at the great white throne and are judged and then thrown into the lake of fire.
Every person who comes into the world, their spirit/soul exists forever and it is the same for the angels! For regarding the angels who sinned, they have been put into gloomy dungeons in chains of darkness until the great white throne judgment. Life and death are the two possible states of existence for all people. Those who obtain eternal life will exist forever in the kingdom of God, while the unrighteous will exist forever in separation from God in complete loss of well being. According to scripture, life and death are both states of eternal existence. It is the state of that existence in relation to God that defines life or death.
I agree, but I also would have pointed out the the SO-CALLED parable of Lazarus and the Rich Man is ACTUALLY A TRUE BIOGRAPHICAL STORY, and not a parable. JESUS NEVER gave a name to anyone when it was only a parable. ALSO, the EXACT number of brothers that the Rich had would be totally irrelevant if it was only a parable, and totally relevant when telling the biography of the Rich Man. So why did Jesus not mention the Rich Man's name? Most likely because some or all of the brothers were standing there in the crowd listening to HIM tell the biographical story, and Jesus respectfully did not want to embarrass them.
I also noticed you used "spirit/soul" exists forever. I think that is a common mistake that adds to the confusion that spirit and soul are the same thing. I think even our translators added to that confusion, when the Bible clearly says they are NOT the same thing.
Hebrews 4:12 (ESV)
[SUP]
12 [/SUP] For the word of God is living and active, sharper than any two-edged sword, piercing to
the division of soul and of spirit, of joints and of marrow, and discerning the thoughts
(in the soul) and intentions of the heart
(in the spirit).
I know when you look at this next verse, you will agree that there has been an ongoing debate about it's meaning for centuries. However, I believe that confusion over soul and spirit both being immortal in the unbeliever, can also be resolved in understanding
the division of soul and of spirit.
Matthew 10:28 (ASV)
[SUP]
28 [/SUP] And be not afraid of them that kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul: but rather fear him who is
able to destroy both soul and body in hell.
It is my understanding that the Greek word that translates to "destroy" means to be totally consumed by fire. That makes the soul and body of the unbelievers in hell NOT IMMORTAL. HOWEVER, there is NO MENTION, about what happens to the unbelievers human spirit in hell. I believe that is clear evidence that the "human spirit" in hell will be eternally tormented.
I admit, it is extremely hard to find anyone defining in detail, the difference between soul and spirit. However for me, the light bulb of understanding came on in looking at the Greek word for soul.
Greek Strong's Number: 5590
Greek Word: ψυχή
Transliteration: psychē or psuche
Phonetic Pronunciation: psoo-khay'
Root: from
<G5594>
Cross Reference: TDNT - 9:608,1342
Part of Speech: n f
Usage Notes:
English Words used in KJV:
soul 58
life 40
mind 3
Strong's Talking Greek & Hebrew Dictionary.
Not only can psyche be translated MIND, but also when you go to the Strong's word "mind" G3563, you will find this statement:
Compare
<G5590> (psuche).
Why would that statement be there if the Greeks were not in the habit of using those two words interchangeably?
I believe the Greek usage of the word "soul"
([FONT=Gentium !important]psychē)[/FONT] is referring to the some total of the invisible activity that goes on between one's ears; while the activity of the spirit (good or evil) takes place the heart; making them two different things.
No spiritually dead does not refer a cessation of activity, but rather the exact opposite of eternally living and loving the LORD our GOD. The Holy Spirit brings our spiritually dead, self-centered, rebellious human spirit, to eternally living and loving the LORD our GOD, when we willingly choose to surrender to Jesus as LORD, meaning MASTER.
Brother, I have a question, you said "their spirit/soul exists forever and it is the same for the angels"; DO ANGELS HAVE SOULS? I really do not know, as I have always thought they were only spirit beings.
Also notice how SOUL is used in this verse:
Revelation 16:3 (KJV)
[SUP]
3 [/SUP] And the second angel poured out his vial upon the sea; and it became as the blood of a dead
man: and
every living soul died in the sea.
Yes that too is G5990. Doesn't that mean every living creature in the sea? Wouldn't that in itself clarify that the Apostles understood SOUL, to be the life force that drives brain activity?