Hi BibleGuy,
You quoted a passage in Ezek. 18, telling us a definitive proof of No to ES and I have to stay in that passage. So I ask , is this really your definitive passage to refute ES? You need to defend your position. Otherwise this is not definitive passage at all...strictly speaking there were no "Christians" in the days of Ezekiel and even during the early ministry of Christ.
Thanks
Hello Fredoheaven,
You ask me to defend my position.
But we have an underlying hermeneutics dispute here.
So, let's address that first.
You wrote: "You quoted a passage in Ezek. 18, telling us a definitive proof of No to ES and I have to stay in that passage."
My response: That's the problem. We can't interpret individual Scriptural texts independent of truth revealed throughout the remainder of Scripture. That's an unacceptable method of interpretation.
Jesus and the apostles routinely employ Scriptural considerations from throughout the Tanach. Thus, New Testament Scriptures routinely employ Old Testament Scriptural themes and concepts and terms and language.
Can you imagine telling Paul: "Excuse me Paul...you are NOT permitted to appeal to Deuteronomy in Romans...after all Paul, you are writing Scripture...and you MUST limit yourself to the particular passage you are writing."
No...I don't think so.
Restricting ourselves to one individual text at a time is myopic and unscriptural.
Remember: ALL Scripture is inspired by God (2 Ti. 3:16) and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting, and training in righteousness.
It follows that all Scripture must be consistent and coherent...and if we neglect these necessary truths of consistency and coherence, then we are needlessly limiting our capacity to more thoroughly and properly discern the full truth of God's revelation through Scripture.
You appear to claim the following (let's call it P):
P = A passage of Scripture must be interpreted alone, independent of considerations derived from other passages of Scripture.
CONCLUSION: So, here is a dilemma for you:
If you accept P, then your position is myopic and unscriptural.
If you reject P, then you appear to have no legitimate grounds for criticizing my appeal to the broader context of Scripture when I interpret individual Scriptural passages.
Which horn of this dilemma do you take?
best...
BibleGuy
PS Of course there were no "Christians" during Ezekiel's day...but that's no proof that the prophets do not apply to us! Remember, Jesus said the prophets are NOT abolished (Mt. 5:17), which means they are still in force and apply.