R
RobbyEarl
Guest
So I can relish in my flesh and fill it's desires and still be saved. Dang!! I knew I should hired that 19 year old Japanese girl.
Hello fredoheaven,
Thanks for writing.
You wrote: "...we will not go beyond the 4 corners of this passage..."
My response: Then you violated your own hermeneutics by citing: (1) Ezekiel, (2) Old Covenant, (3) Law, (4) Moses, (5) stoning. (none of these five terms is even stated in Eze. 18!)
Why do you restrict me to Ezekiel 18, yet you seem free to bring in MANY ideas from elsewhere throughout Scripture?
I'd say that's a pretty unfair way to avoid answering the issues I brought forth. Just saying!
Today we live under a New Covenant known as saved by grace through faith in Jesus Christ.
Get out of the stone age and try it.
You haven't read my post #81.
Please answer it if you can.
Alright Bibleguy, I have edited those words/sentences in the "message" though they only convey emphasis and which is a fair way as you have said but still it carries same message. So here it goes...
The Message:
The question is who are these righteous according to Prophet Ezekiel? The righteous is the one who is not committing iniquity and is not doing the abomination like the wicked man does. The wicked man is the opposite of the righteous who are living in trespasses and sins. Ultimately, what the Prophet is all talking about on the passage are those Israelites and not the Gentiles hence verse 25 says the Prophet says “hear now, O Israel”. Any descendants of Israel (physical) during that time were warned to consider their ways, righteous that turns away from his righteousness together with the wicked shall die.
Hi there Fredoheaven,
Why assume a distinction between (1) Gentiles grafted into Israel, and (2) the "Israel" which Ezekiel is addressing?
Dt. 29, Dt. 31, and Is. 56 all jointly confirm that grafted-in Gentiles were accepted as Israelites.
So, when Ezekiel addresses "O Israel", then this applies to grafted-in Gentiles as well!
Now, all Christians are included as Israelites right? Otherwise we could NOT participate in covenants that are ONLY between God and Israel (e.g., Jer. 31:33).
So why would Ezekiel 18 not apply to us?
Eze. 18 applies to Israel...we Christians (regardless of genetics) are included in Israel...therefore, it applies to us...even Gentile Christians.
Right?
best...
BibleGuy
Romans 8:38-39
38 For I am persuaded, that neither death, nor life, nor angels, nor principalities, nor powers, nor things present, nor things to come,
39 Nor height, nor depth, nor any other creature, shall be able to separate us from the love of God, which is in Christ Jesus our Lord.
Are you going to find the actual phrase "once saved, always saved" in the Bible? No. But these verses clearly demonstrate that once we are in Christ, we cannot be separated from God's love.
Nor has anyone shown me a verse that says that once a person is saved that he will never in the future be lost. The verses above (Rom 8:39,40) say that "we" can never be separated from God's love. Who is "we"? Are all "unbelievers" separated from God's love? All valid questions to ask and interpret: but the verses do not clearly state the "eternal security doctrine"
Hi BibleGuy,
You quoted a passage in Ezek. 18, telling us a definitive proof of No to ES and I have to stay in that passage. So I ask , is this really your definitive passage to refute ES? You need to defend your position. Otherwise this is not definitive passage at all...strictly speaking there were no "Christians" in the days of Ezekiel and even during the early ministry of Christ.
Thanks
Please note in Rom 8:38-39 there is one very glaring thing missing, the self. It does not say that we cannot separate ourselves from God, it says no other OUTSIDE force can...
Isa 59:1 Behold, the LORD's hand is not shortened, That it cannot save; Nor His ear heavy, That it cannot hear.
Isa 59:2 But your iniquities have separated you from your God; And your sins have hidden His face from you, So that He will not hear.
Our own actions (sin) can separate us from God.
The grafting in applies when the Jews did not receive the Gospel of Christ, since the Gospel must be preached to the Jew first so Paul thus preached the gospel to the Jews and was repeatedly rejected (Acts 13—28); in consequence, Paul brought the good news to the Gentiles, who in turn became Abraham’s spiritual seed by faith and heirs of the promises to Abraham and his seed (Galatians 3—4). This is what Paul meant in Romans 11 by the Gentiles being “grafted” into the “olive tree” and nourished by the “root” (the promises to Abraham). The tree thus signifies the collective people of God; the “wild branches” grafted in are Gentile believers; the “natural branches” that are cut off are the Jews in unbelief. Jewish believers remain in the tree but are joined with Gentiles and “made” into a “new body,” the Church (Ephesians 2:11–22).
John 6:37 " All that the Father gives me will come to me, and whoever comes to me I will NEVER cast out."
This would be one verse, I would assume there are others.
John 6:37 " All that the Father gives me will come to me, and whoever comes to me I will NEVER cast out."
This would be one verse, I would assume there are others.
Maybe my question is not understood what I am asking: I want a verse that just says it outrightly: not one that has to be interpreted to mean "once saved always saved"
John 6;37 is a powerful verse that has deep truths, but again I don't see it saying outrightly that once a person is saved he is always saved.
If I said to someone: "Whoever come to my house to live, I will never (in no wise) cast out" -- Then if a person came to my house to live with me, but five years later he moved out or someone kidnapped him (hence he was no longer in my house), would you say my invitation to him was a lie?
The first phrase of the verse "all that the Father giveth me" has to be interpreted: Is it "the elect"? Is it those who believe at a point in time? Is it those who continue to believe? Is it those who do good works? It seems to me that here one's previous interpretation of other verses and one's overall view of Scripture will tend to influence one'se interpretation of this phrase.
In order to make the verse mean OSAS you have to bring in principles from other verses. At least that is my opinion.
I am not here trying to disprove OSAS. I am just asking if there is a verse that states it, or if the doctrine comes from a study of Scriptural principles.
You will not find those exact words, Any more than you will find trinity. But the facts remain the same
Eternal life is the best you will get, Eternal (never ending) live (vs death)
You will not be mistaken, If you invite someone over and say if they come into your family, they will live forever. then they die, You lied. Plain and simple
Same goes with God. He promised they woud never die, never hunger or thrist, Live forever, and be risen on the last day (john 6)
If those things do not happen, Jesus lied. Plain and simple
Are you referring here to John 6:35?
"And Jesus said unto them, I am the bread of life: he that cometh to me shall never hunger, and he that believeth on me shall never thirst"
Again, I guess it is as you said that "you will not find those exact words" .
Here Jesus says: the one who comes to me will never hunger; and the one who believes in me will never thirst". He doesn't say that the one who is not coming to him and that the one who is not believing in him will never thirst or hunger.
To make this verse mean "once saved always saved" you would need to interpret the "coming" and the "believing" as a point in time action when we believe (are born again).