Peter, if you want to post on a forum such as this you should expect people who do not agree with your position to both comment on it and challenge its validity.
If that is your definition of "judgmental" I can wear that no problem, however you appear to be suggesting that what what I am doing is ungodly and unchristian.
After all, you have already told me to repent!
However, I am interested in what you are saying, although I am struggling a bit to understand how someone who has been so active on a forum such as this seems not to know his Bible or understand theological precepts - after all the subform you posted in is exactly there to explore both of these things.
The reason I questioned you about Abraham is very simple:
You made a completely untrue statement that that prior to Jesus human beings needed to become Jews to get to God.
In Genesis chapter 12 God called Abram and gave him a promise. By faith Abram believed him. And so what we now refer to as the Abrahamic covenant was sealed.
Now it is crucially important to understand that several NT writers make a big deal of this. Paul, and others, stress the fact that: "Abraham believed and it was accounted to him as righteousness" - this phrase is used in Romans, Galatians, James, and perhaps elsewhere as well to point out several things:
One does not need Levitical law to approach God - this directly contradicts your statement about people needing to become Jews to approach God;
One does not come to God by one's works - over and over the NT writers stress that Abraham was justified by faith.
Grace was a key component of the Abrahamic covenant - Abram was not chosen by God because he was sinless nor did he have any other special qualification. He did not deserve to be chosen. However, once he accepted what God proposed that covenant could not be undone - it was unconditional. Now if you read all about Abraham's life you note a couple of very unsavoury incidents in his life - he sinned - no doubt about it.
However, in the NT he is feted as one of the great men of faith.
Was Paul and the rest of the NT writers who reference the life of Abraham in this way wrong?
Why does Paul in particular reference Abraham in such great detail in Roman's in constructing his argument that salvation is by grace through faith?
I am not talking about the odd verse here and there I am talking line-after-line, verse-after-verse, and chapter-after-chapter.
In Romans chapter 3:
21 But now apart from the law the righteousness of God has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify.
22 This righteousness is given through faith in[h] Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference between Jew and Gentile,
23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God,
24 and all are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus.
25 God presented Christ as a sacrifice of atonement,[i]through the shedding of his blood—to be received by faith. He did this to demonstrate his righteousness, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished—
26 he did it to demonstrate his righteousness at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies those who have faith in Jesus.27 Where, then, is boasting? It is excluded. Because of what law? The law that requires works? No, because of the law that requires faith.
28 For we maintain that a person is justified by faith apart from the works of the law.
29 Or is God the God of Jews only? Is he not the God of Gentiles too? Yes, of Gentiles too,
30 since there is only one God, who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through that same faith.
31 Do we, then, nullify the law by this faith? Not at all! Rather, we uphold the law.
Verses 28 and 31 should be of particular interest to you.
Do not try to isolate vs 31 from the rest read the whole passage and go read the whole of Romans with an open mind.