Which Bible?

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I am not a KJV Onlyist, yet I do see that the KJV is one of the better translations of the bible.
Some translations are awful, and some have that small leaven that causes discrepancy in doctrine and understanding which leads to deception. In all things allow the Holy Spirit to lead the interpretation. This is why many people have abandoned certain bible translations for more accurate versions.

God will not act contrary to Himself. He does give us what He will or will not do in scripture. To act otherwise would make God a liar.
 
I thought you received your understanding from the Holy Spirit?

ok well, I can play mind and word games too but I really dislike them

you asked post a question...I gave you a thought inducing answer...in other words, without the Bible how is anyone saved and for that matter is it the Bible that saves?

do you not see where you fall so short you have no land to stand on?

here is your question:



can you answer how God got in touch with Abram? or anyone for that matter?

God is not the Bible...God is not bound into the Bible

most people HEAR about God...they do not READ about Him and that goes all the way back to....well I think it's Adam teaching his sons
I'm sorry, you're posts are so rude and condescending that I don't read much of them. But to answer your question, God spoke directly to Abraham.
 
I'm sorry, you're posts are so rude and condescending that I don't read much of them. But to answer your question, God spoke directly to Abraham.

God also speaks directly to those who are born again :) He speaks to us in that still small voice through the indwelling of the Holy Spirit. The real question is, do we drown Him out or do we listen?
 
God also speaks directly to those who are born again :) He speaks to us in that still small voice through the indwelling of the Holy Spirit. The real question is, do we drown Him out or do we listen?

Have you ever heard his voice audibly like Abraham did?
 
So, are you afraid that all of those Filipino Christians are not truly saved? And that they are at risk of damnation because they haven't been able to read the "pure" words of God?

How silly is that argument?

I see, it seems you get offended to the truth i posted, there is none yet a pure Bible in a Filipino. It is a hope that you don't equate this to salvation. THE ISSUE is the scriptures, the Bible, not SALVATION. If ever you want to tackle the issue of salvation put that on the other thread. Is that ok with you?

Just post on the thread my friend...

:)
 
Ah. I know this is a very serious subject. Some Bibles omit certain verses, and the some of the Bibles twist and distort the correct meaning.

I use BlueletterBible - KJV - and the Greek and Hebrew notes

But for plain reading I like the NSRV. It is English I can understand, and in Romans it correctly translates 'Hellas' as Greek.

It also translates Daniel 9 24-27 well. Basically I find it scores a hit in key areas many times, but of course, no translation, that I know of, is 'infallible'.

Wasn't the Geneva Bible the first proper translation?

Hi

We have got the biggest problem of this post for sure my friend implying No Bible is infallible. If this is the case, then nothing can prove by you. Put it simply, even you say the NRSV is the best translation, that still is "fallible". O I want, is the Bible that is infallible, scriptures that is infallible, the infallible words of God. The message is clear, I am saying an Infallible Bible and you are saying fallible.

God is infallible and thus His words too. Jesus demonstrate infallibility Acts 1:3 by giving infallible proofs after his resurrection. Is our book, the Bible can surely demonstrate infallibility? Yes, I believe the KJV is the words of God that makes it infallible.

God bless you
 
I am not a KJV Onlyist, yet I do see that the KJV is one of the better translations of the bible.
Some translations are awful, and some have that small leaven that causes discrepancy in doctrine and understanding which leads to deception. In all things allow the Holy Spirit to lead the interpretation. This is why many people have abandoned certain bible translations for more accurate versions.

God will not act contrary to Himself. He does give us what He will or will not do in scripture. To act otherwise would make God a liar.

'Translations' like The Message, The Voice, The Passion Translation are interesting, but they're more devotionals than translations. And if they're treated as such, there are no problems. Then you have paraphrases like the New Living Translation which are good, but not great. I don't like the KJV, nor do I find it particularly accurate, but I honour it as the Word of God.
 
It's NOT silly... I'm going by what YOU said. You mentioned all the Filipino Christians who had not had the opportunity to have "the pure words of God"..... which implies that they are somehow lacking in knowledge, and the ability to grow in that knowledge.

I'm trying to get you to see that it is NOT a "translation" that ensures our salvation.... which is what most of the KJV-only folks imply. I could quote John146 or KJV1611 to prove it, but I think you know what I mean.

This is far better, "silly" then "not silly", "salvation" then "growing in that knowledge". I am not supposed to be judged among every Filipino Christians regarding their maturity. Let it be place to God for God is the judge.

But what I am telling you is that there is non- yet a Filipino Bible just like the KJV of English. What I am giving you is a fact not just an opinion. Is this now ok with you?

God bless
 
Man did not and cannot translate God's word, it's impossible. God is the only one capable of translating his word. God moved the original writers to write EXACTLY what God wanted written down. In the same way, God moved the inspired bible translators to write down EXACTLY what God wanted written down.

A God inspired translation will not and can not contain errors, it's contrary to the nature of God.

You believe that the KJV translators were "inspired" as the original authors were. I challenge you to provide objective evidence to support your belief... no opinions, no circular reasoning, and no logical fallacies.
 
This is far better, "silly" then "not silly", "salvation" then "growing in that knowledge". I am not supposed to be judged among every Filipino Christians regarding their maturity. Let it be place to God for God is the judge.

But what I am telling you is that there is non- yet a Filipino Bible just like the KJV of English. What I am giving you is a fact not just an opinion. Is this now ok with you?

God bless
It always was ok with me....YOU are the one insinuating that the KJV is the only source for the "pure inerrant" words of God.

I was simply pointing out the error, or "silliness" of that belief.

If that offends you, I'm sorry....I'll ry to come up with a nicer way to say "you're wrong"
 
It always was ok with me....YOU are the one insinuating that the KJV is the only source for the "pure inerrant" words of God.

I was simply pointing out the error, or "silliness" of that belief.

If that offends you, I'm sorry....I'll ry to come up with a nicer way to say "you're wrong"

Hi,

I see no offense. I think it's YOU who have been offended, while I am saying I believe KJV is a pure , preserved, "is given by inspiration of God..". It is "infallible" words of God. You point no really no error or silliness as you just misunderstood what I posted. I just don't know in this thread you come up with a good demonstration that you have infallible guide or bible? How can I believe if you come with doubts that what you hold contain errors, mistakes -"FALLIBLE". To be sure you have to check your words before you will be technically fouled out. Anyway, this maybe out of the topic.

The one I did emboldened of your statement has its flaws? There are other sources of pure inerrant words of God. First the original writings by the prophets, the psalmist and the Apostles if you like including Tertius. Then the copies of the originals and faithful copies of copies. Know what? the original have long since gone. Then copies of copies in the hands of every bible believers. Since the Gospel is to be preached to every nation, copies of the originals now translated so that people will come to know Christ. It so happen, English speaking people did have the purest form of the words of God in English in what we called the KJV. All other English translation prior to 1611 except RHEIMS are good one but out of the good ones we have the principal one.

So if you ask me, KJV is not my only source of authority. IT IS MY FINAL AUTHORITY!

God bless
 
Well you are posting nonsense now Fredo.

It would take me several years of analysis before I could declare any particular version of the Bible infallible, and therefore I can rightly say that no version that I know of is infallible.

There are excellent translations, and there are dubious ones.

NRSV is an excellent one. KJV is very good, but the language is opaque to a modern reader, and it has several errors I believe. I know of a few off the bat.

I haven't studied the NRSV cover to cover, so I cannot say that it is impeccable, and I have seen one or two translations in it that I think aren't the best, but I do find it, from personal experience, to be of the highest quality, a really wonderful piece of inspired and faithful translation. May God richly bless its translators.
 
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Well you are posting nonsense now Fredo.

It would take me several years of analysis before I could declare any particular version of the Bible infallible, and therefore I can rightly say that no version that I know of is infallible.

There are excellent translations, and there are dubious ones.

NRSV is an excellent one. KJV is very good, but the language is opaque to a modern reader, and it has several errors I believe. I know of a few off the bat.

I haven't studied the NRSV cover to cover, so I cannot say that it is impeccable, and I have seen one or two translations in it that I think aren't the best, but I do find it, from personal experience, to be of the highest quality, a really wonderful piece of inspired and faithful translation. May God richly bless its translators.

Hi,

Well, i have to disregard that "non sense", you offer: it's off the topic. Well ok,I do understand you,"you haven't studied...so I cannot say..." that's all about you.

But I am happy it you ever ever demonstrate those errors you beleive that there are in the KJV and perhaps we could study with civility in mind.:)

God bless
 
Hi,

Well, i have to disregard that "non sense", you offer: it's off the topic. Well ok,I do understand you,"you haven't studied...so I cannot say..." that's all about you.

But I am happy it you ever ever demonstrate those errors you beleive that there are in the KJV and perhaps we could study with civility in mind.:)

God bless

Sure. :) I like civil.

Throughout Romans Hellen is mistranslated as Gentile. E.G. Romans 2 v 10
 
Sure. :) I like civil.

Throughout Romans Hellen is mistranslated as Gentile. E.G. Romans 2 v 10

Would you quote the full verse please and why is it in error?

But just a piece, since we have to study be patient with me... I really need to study it if it needs be...

God bless
 
[FONT=&quot]KJV: 9 Tribulation and anguish, upon every soul of man that doeth evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Gentile;10 But glory, honour, and peace, to every man that worketh good, to the Jew first, and also to the Gentile:

NRSV: 9 There will be anguish and distress for everyone who does evil, the Jew first and also the Greek, 10 but glory and honor and peace for everyone who does good, the Jew first and also the Greek.

The world was composed of, in Jewish thought, the Jewish nation, and all the other nations, 'the Gentiles' (the nations')

So how can judgment come to all the world first? Paul is not saying that, as it would make no sense.

He is saying to the Jew and Greek first, i.e Greek converts to Judaism.

[/FONT]
 
KJV: 9 Tribulation and anguish, upon every soul of man that doeth evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Gentile;10 But glory, honour, and peace, to every man that worketh good, to the Jew first, and also to the Gentile:

NRSV: 9 There will be anguish and distress for everyone who does evil, the Jew first and also the Greek, 10 but glory and honor and peace for everyone who does good, the Jew first and also the Greek.

The world was composed of, in Jewish thought, the Jewish nation, and all the other nations, 'the Gentiles' (the nations')

So how can judgment come to all the world first? Paul is not saying that, as it would make no sense.

He is saying to the Jew and Greek first, i.e Greek converts to Judaism.


Thank you, just a quick response, in my early Christianity, I have learned that one of the best way to intrepret God's word is by using ABC, I meant "Always by the Context". Have we considered that? Still reading the verse and studying...

Be patient...
 
KJV: 9 Tribulation and anguish, upon every soul of man that doeth evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Gentile;10 But glory, honour, and peace, to every man that worketh good, to the Jew first, and also to the Gentile:

NRSV: 9 There will be anguish and distress for everyone who does evil, the Jew first and also the Greek, 10 but glory and honor and peace for everyone who does good, the Jew first and also the Greek.

The world was composed of, in Jewish thought, the Jewish nation, and all the other nations, 'the Gentiles' (the nations')

So how can judgment come to all the world first? Paul is not saying that, as it would make no sense.

He is saying to the Jew and Greek first, i.e Greek converts to Judaism.


Hi again
Still studying and you’re giving me headache, you said in the Jewish thought, the world is composed of only two as you mentioned being the Jewish nation and other nations are Gentiles (that includes Greece) or the people to be compose primarily of the Jew and Gentile which includes the Greeks. And this I say, agreed!

Again, you are saying, how can judgment come to all the world first which Paul is not saying then as this would make no sense?

I asked, is not sin affects the world? as it is written that “For all have sinned and come short of the glory of God…
Is the sin that bring judgment is only for the Jew first and also to the Greek?

Then again, is he saying to the Jew and the Greek first? Is not your NRSV says to the Jew first and also to the Greek?
Now concerning “the Jew first and also to the Greek” as stated in the Romans 1:16 is correct since this refers to Gospel preaching where Jesus said in Acts 1:8 as he commanded that they be witnesses both in Jerusalem (Jews) and in all Judea (Jews) -----to the uttermost part of the earth (Gentiles).

My thoughts for today….
 
Hi Fred,

It is a particularly difficult scripture.

The Jews call non-Jews 'Goyim' meaning the Nations.

The world is viewed as the Holy Nation, and the other Nations, in this worldview.

The Gentiles means the same thing, Nations. So for instance, Luke 2:32


A light to lighten the Gentiles, and the glory of thy people Israel.


Gentiles here is the translation of 'ethnos'.


Hellen simply means Greek.
 
You believe that the KJV translators were "inspired" as the original authors were. I challenge you to provide objective evidence to support your belief... no opinions, no circular reasoning, and no logical fallacies.
By circular reasoning I assume you mean logic or common sense. Like I can't say the KJV is inspired because God is perfect and an inerrant bible proves that God inspired it. No, if I can't use logic and common sense in my argument then I can't prove anything.