Which Bible?

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Not if you understand God's purification process.

When the translators of the King James Bible did their work beginning in 1604, they used Hebrew and Greek (and Latin) for their translating. But they were also provided with something else to assist them in their labors. Several other English translations of the Bible had been produced before the King James Bible of 1611 became the mainstay for 400 years. When the King James translators sat at their desks to do their translation work they were also provided with some of those previous translations. In fact the translators had loose-leaf copies of each of the following:
1. Tyndale’s translation (1525)
2. The Coverdale Bible (1535)
3. The Matthews Bible (1537)
4. The Great Bible (1539)
5. The Geneva Bible (1560)
6. The Bishops Bible (1568)
The seventh translation would be the “preserved” words of God. It is interesting to note that in creation (Genesis 1) six times God said “it was good”. But the seventh time He said “it was very good”.

This has been proven wrong in previous threads, as well.
 
It's not confusing at all.... 1 Corinthians is merely giving the qualities of "love"... pure love. It is talking about how love works between people. It does not say that people cannot "love" things...even the wrong "things". It is telling us how to recognize true love for our fellow man.

If people pervert that love, and "love" material things, it is wrong. If you "love" (cherish) money, you've missed the mark. If you "love" (cherish) the things of this world, you have missed the mark.

Nope. It's talking about the type of love between the brethren which is charity. A lost person can love or pure love.
 
Yes, in Scripture charity is not exactly the same as love. Charity never fails. Love can fail if misplaced upon worldly things like money. This is impossible to do with charity.

Id say it's not impossible today for charity to fail, not all charity foundations are what they say they are, some are schemes just for money and hide behind that word charity.
 
John: Because love is the correct translation

The original text says AGAPE


ἀγάπη agapē


Etymology : "to love"

Love, affection, esteem
 
Just before he died, Tyndale prayed that God would "open the eyes" of Henry VIII, thereby allowing people in England to have access to their own Bibles translated into their own language. Soon thereafter, that's exactly what He did.

So you totally ignore my point and come out with some random statement. Your refined 7 times is nonsense. IF you are using Tyndale translation as a "refined 7 times", then that means the old testment has only been refined 6 times. and what about Wycliffe?
 
Not if you understand God's purification process.

When the translators of the King James Bible did their work beginning in 1604, they used Hebrew and Greek (and Latin) for their translating. But they were also provided with something else to assist them in their labors. Several other English translations of the Bible had been produced before the King James Bible of 1611 became the mainstay for 400 years. When the King James translators sat at their desks to do their translation work they were also provided with some of those previous translations. In fact the translators had loose-leaf copies of each of the following:
1. Tyndale’s translation (1525)
2. The Coverdale Bible (1535)
3. The Matthews Bible (1537)
4. The Great Bible (1539)
5. The Geneva Bible (1560)
6. The Bishops Bible (1568)
The seventh translation would be the “preserved” words of God. It is interesting to note that in creation (Genesis 1) six times God said “it was good”. But the seventh time He said “it was very good”.

First, this is not "God's purification process". That is hogwash, and I'm surprised that you even made the statement. God's purification process is FIRE, not translation.

Second, the reference to Genesis is completely irrelevant.

Third, the reference on which you base this is Psalm 12:6 in which it says 'like' or 'as'. It's a simile, a comparison, not a statement of identity. If this is true for any version, it must be true for every other translation in any language, and for the manuscripts themselves, which is plainly ridiculous.
 
Stephen is not quoting OT Scripture but merely telling the story. There were 75 souls that came to Egypt where Joseph and his family lived.

Genesis is stating the number of souls born unto Jacob, not counting their wives, which was 70. The wives were in the count that Stephen gave that came to Egypt.

It's simple to see when reading the words of context.

Can you explain to me:
a) why does Stephen counts viwes
b) how do you know there were 5 wives
 
John146, KJV1611:

Can you explain to me this change of meaning?

"But go ye and learn what that meaneth, I will have mercy, and not sacrifice." (KJV Matthew 9:13)

"For I desired mercy, and not sacrifice." (KJV Hosea 6:6)

"For I will [have] mercy rather than sacrifice." (LXX Hosea 6:6)


Its obviously different in the KJV. To desire something is not the same as to have it. And the tense is also different (future vs past).
 
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John146, KJV1611:

Can you explain to me this change of meaning?

"But go ye and learn what that meaneth, I will have mercy, and not sacrifice." (KJV Matthew 9:13)

"For I desired mercy, and not sacrifice." (KJV Hosea 6:6)

"For I will [have] mercy rather than sacrifice." (LXX Hosea 6:6)


Its obviously different in the KJV. To desire something is not the same as to have it. And the tense is also different (future vs past).
In Matthew Jesus is inviting the Pharisees to be saved... go learn what that meaneth and I will have mercy (salvation by grace) and not sacrifice (salvation through the law). He was letting the Phaisees know that Hosea 6 was right then and there being fulfilled but I don't think the Pharisees got it. Jesus wasn't quoting Hosea, he was using Hosea in a sentence to witness to the Pharisees.

In Hosea the prophet is speaking fom the point of view that the prophecy had already been fulfilled. I'm off to a high school football game for now. I'll check back later.
 
Joseph only had two kids Ephraim and Manasseh where does ""nine souls" come from? There are no verses in any bible that I know of that say Joseph had nine kids.

I don't know, my guess is grandkids... or it's a textual corruption.
 
I don't know, my guess is grandkids... or it's a textual corruption.

Or LXX changed it so that the number would add up to 75 under the false pretense that Genesis 46 was supposed to match Stephens number. The same thing happened with Ahaziahs age and those bibles that changed the ages to match are wrong.
 
Nope. It's talking about the type of love between the brethren which is charity. A lost person can love or pure love.

well, as WWJD already posted, the original word is agape... which is "love"... not "charity".
 
God has promised to preserve His words, not in every language or to every people, but in such a way as they would be known by many of God's believing people. The Lord Jesus said:

"Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away." Matthew 24:35

God never promised that every nation or individual would have a perfect Bible, but He did promise to preserve His pure, complete and 100% true words somewhere on this earth.

"Seek ye out of the Book of the LORD and read..." Isaiah 34:16.
God is under no obligation to give equal light or gifts to all people. There was a period of time when for about 2000 years only one small nation had the true and pure words of God.

Psalms 147:19-20 says: "He sheweth his word unto Jacob, his statutes and his judgments unto Israel. He hath not dealt so with any nation; and as for his judgments, they have not known them. Praise ye the LORD."

God will hold us accountable for the light He has been pleased to give us. We who have the preserved and inerrant words of God in the English language of the King James Bible will be held far more accountable for what we have done with this book than those who cannot read English.

"For unto whomsoever much is given, of him shall much be required: and to whom men have committed much, of him they will ask the more." Luke 12:48

' He did promise to preserve His pure, complete and 100% true words somewhere on this earth.'


at all times or just sometimes?
 
I believe they were being preserved through the Hebrew and Greek manuscripts used to translate the AV1611 and several other English translations of the Bible had been produced before the King James Bible of 1611 became the mainstay for 400 years. When the King James translators sat at their desks to do their translation work they were also provided with some of those previous translations. In fact the translators had loose-leaf copies of each of the following:

1. Tyndale’s translation (1525)
2. The Coverdale Bible (1535)
3. The Matthews Bible (1537)
4. The Great Bible (1539)
5. The Geneva Bible (1560)
6. The Bishops Bible (1568)

But the entirety of Scripture would not be perfect, whole, completed until the AV1611.

which Hebrew and Greek manuscripts were used to translate the AV1611? aren't they still around?
 
Or LXX changed it so that the number would add up to 75 under the false pretense that Genesis 46 was supposed to match Stephens number. The same thing happened with Ahaziahs age and those bibles that changed the ages to match are wrong.

The lxx translators were working about 200 years before Stephen.

Did you want to talk about
DEUTERONOMY 10:22 Thy fathers went down into Egypt with threescore and ten persons; and now the LORD thy God hath made thee as the stars of heaven for multitude.
 
In Matthew Jesus is inviting the Pharisees to be saved... go learn what that meaneth and I will have mercy (salvation by grace) and not sacrifice (salvation through the law). He was letting the Phaisees know that Hosea 6 was right then and there being fulfilled but I don't think the Pharisees got it. Jesus wasn't quoting Hosea, he was using Hosea in a sentence to witness to the Pharisees.

In Hosea the prophet is speaking fom the point of view that the prophecy had already been fulfilled. I'm off to a high school football game for now. I'll check back later.

I do not understand what you mean by "he is not quoting Hosea". He said "learn what that means" so He had to quote it.
 
Or LXX changed it so that the number would add up to 75 under the false pretense that Genesis 46 was supposed to match Stephens number. The same thing happened with Ahaziahs age and those bibles that changed the ages to match are wrong.

Or MSS editors changed the "ugly" 75 to nice and perfect "70" which is a symbolic Hebrew number for perfection. And the New Testament quotes the old, not corrupted version :)

Which is much more probable.
 
it's such a waste of precious time and energy, anytime that you can see that you
are in a 'no-win-situation', a circular path of 'negativity results and ultimately,
nothing is resolved...how many times we have seen this scenario in CC.-
and the 'children of Israel wandered in the wilderness 40yrs...

when we are true servants of Jesus Christ, we have to learn and accept others
for where they are and we must also accept where our precious time and efforts
should be in our service and to be able to discern when we are going in a circle and
wasting what we could be putting forth for those who need us the most in this
wicked world...

EPH.5:15-16.
See then that ye walk circumspectly, not as fools, but as wise,
Redeeming the time, because the days are evil.
 
seems to me the biggest difficulty for kjv being perfect is it may or may not be the seventh, and any other seventh translation would also be perfect.

also, why would we believe there is a perfect Bible for our generation?