The King James Only Debate

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Dan_473 said:
I'm going with the story that Adam and Eve had a perfect written copy...

that way they could pass it in to their kids...
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I think the word of the Lord came and spoke to them directly in that day but not in our time. The bible says that the word of the Lord is the gospel.

1 Peter 1:24-25 KJV
For all flesh is as grass, and all the glory of man as the flower of grass. The grass withereth, and the flower thereof falleth away: [25] But the word of the Lord endureth for ever. And this is the word which by the gospel is preached unto you.
 
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trofimus said:
Masorets were not Christians, but unbelieving Jews. No reason why would God preserve His Word by them. And He did not. Just compare NT quotations from the OT with your "precise" masoretic OT.

Dead Sea Scrolls show many contradictions to masoretic texts, too.
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Here is an interesting read. The dead sea scrolls are considered the masoretic texts.

The Dead Sea Scrolls - Introduction
 
Dan_473 said:
God spoke to every individual person up till the time of Moses?
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Some directly and some through the prophets of the Lord. Do a KJV search on "word of the Lord" to get the idea of how God spoke in the past.
 
KJV1611 said:
Some directly and some through the prophets of the Lord. Do a KJV search on "word of the Lord" to get the idea of how God spoke in the past.
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I think I get what you're saying...

God has always communicated with humans

HEBREWS 1:1 In the past God spoke to our ancestors at many different times and in many different ways through the prophets.
HEBREWS 1:2 In these last days he has spoken to us through his Son.


the role of the kjv is that God can use it to show us number patterns and other truths.
 
John146 said:
I ignore correction from a Bible corrector? No thanks. Any so called "correction" has all been debunked.
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You clearly missed what I was saying. I was not referring to corrections to the content of the KJV, but corrections aimed directly at your logical fallacies. You would do well to read up on the subject.
 
Dino246 said:
You clearly missed what I was saying. I was not referring to corrections to the content of the KJV, but corrections aimed directly at your logical fallacies. You would do well to read up on the subject.
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Is the logical fallacy the KJV is inerrant?
 
Dan_473 said:
I think I get what you're saying...

God has always communicated with humans

HEBREWS 1:1 In the past God spoke to our ancestors at many different times and in many different ways through the prophets.
HEBREWS 1:2 In these last days he has spoken to us through his Son.


the role of the kjv is that God can use it to show us number patterns and other truths.
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God always speaks to his people by the word of the Lord. All that changes is the form the word of the Lord takes... vision, direct communication or the written word.
 
KJV1611 said:
Is the logical fallacy the KJV is inerrant?
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No, the statement, "the KJV is inerrant" is not, by itself, a logical fallacy nor does it contain one. A fallacy is simply an error of logic. Examples of fallacies include burden-of-proof reversal, circular reasoning, straw-man and ad hominem arguments. :)
 
I don't know if these people are just stupid or are mentally ill. It's maddening.
 
Dino246 said:
No, the statement, "the KJV is inerrant" is not, by itself, a logical fallacy nor does it contain one. A fallacy is simply an error of logic. Examples of fallacies include burden-of-proof reversal, circular reasoning, straw-man and ad hominem arguments. :)
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Is it an error in logic that the God of the universe gave man His words to live by but did not preserve them for us? Is it logical to say that God's words are and never are in error?
 
I think the main thing to consider is that they have a love for the word of God .....we should be respecting that in the KJV only brethren....and in their mind the word of God is only the KJV - so they will defend it to the end. Their heart is right towards the word of God - just off in what the word of God actually is in my opinion.

I don't believe there is a "special anointing" on 1611 English nor on a translation from that time period that other good translations don't have now in this time frame.

The KJV is a good translation and there are some others as well. None of them are without translator bias in some cases. At least they put their own words they add in "italics" as other translations do too. That is a good thing.

Personally I read the NASB first then the KJV - then I go to the Greek and Hebrew when I am studying.

All scripture needs to be revealed to us by the Holy Spirit. It doesn't come from our natural minds figuring out things and we can be reading the scriptures for 50 years and still not get the revelation of Christ out of it without the Holy Spirit revealing the things of God to us.
 
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Grace777x70 said:
I think the main thing to consider is that they have a love for the word of God .....we should be respecting that in the KJV only brethren....and in their mind the word of God is only the KJV - so they will defend it to the end. Their heart is right towards the word of God - just off in what the word of God actually is in my opinion.

I don't believe there is a "special anointing" on 1611 English nor on a translation from that time period that other good translations don't have now in this time frame.

The KJV is a good translation and there are some others as well. None of them are without translator bias in some cases. At least they put their own words they add in "italics" as other translations do too. That is a good thing.

Personally I read the NASB first then the KJV - then I go to the Greek and Hebrew when I am studying.

All scripture needs to be revealed to us by the Holy Spirit. It doesn't come from our natural minds figuring out things and we can be reading the scriptures for 50 years and still not get the revelation of Christ out of it without the Holy Spirit revealing the things of God to us.
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Speaking for myself and not the others, yes I do have a love for the scriptures. I also have much more knowledge about the bible than those who don't believe every word in the bible is true. It takes faith in every word being right to understand the deeper things of the bible.
 
John146 said:
Is it an error in logic that the God of the universe gave man His words to live by but did not preserve them for us? Is it logical to say that God's words are and never are in error?
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This is a complete side-step, an attempt to deflect attention. I'm not taking the bait. The burden remains on you to prove your assertions.
 
KJV1611 said:
God always speaks to his people by the word of the Lord. All that changes is the form the word of the Lord takes... vision, direct communication or the written word.
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By direct communication you mean 'dreams' right?
 
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