My turn to ask three easy questions:
1 Corinthians 10:23-24 (KJV)
[SUP]23 [/SUP] All things are lawful for me, but all things are not expedient: all things are lawful for me, but all things edify not.
[SUP]24 [/SUP] Let no man seek his own, but every man another's wealth.
Now since we have established the words in italics mean that word is NOT in the origin language manuscripts, read those two verses without INSERTING the word wealth, like the KJV translators did.
1. Is it not clear that Paul is forbidding Self Edification in verse 24?
Now read the following verse and I will ask the second question:
1 Corinthians 14:4 (KJV)
[SUP]4 [/SUP] He that speaketh in an unknown tongue edifieth himself; but he that prophesieth edifieth the church.
1 Corinthians 10:23-24 (KJV)
[SUP]23 [/SUP] All things are lawful for me, but all things are not expedient: all things are lawful for me, but all things edify not.
[SUP]24 [/SUP] Let no man seek his own, but every man another's wealth.
Now since we have established the words in italics mean that word is NOT in the origin language manuscripts, read those two verses without INSERTING the word wealth, like the KJV translators did.
1. Is it not clear that Paul is forbidding Self Edification in verse 24?
Now read the following verse and I will ask the second question:
1 Corinthians 14:4 (KJV)
[SUP]4 [/SUP] He that speaketh in an unknown tongue edifieth himself; but he that prophesieth edifieth the church.
Paul also gives singing a psalm as an example of an activity that can be done 'unto edifying.' If singing Psalms is edifying, and you hold that self-edification is wrong, then would singing a Psalm at home alone be forbidding if it edifies you?
Paul wrote, "I would that ye all spake with tongues" and that he who speaks in tongues edifies himself. He wrote that he would rather have them/you prophesy, and that prophesying edifies the church.
Here are some ideas we get from reading the passage
Edify yourself----> desirable
Prophesy---------> even more desirable
Speaking in tongues--> edifies self
Prophesying-----------> edifies others
Paul wanted the Corinthians to speak in tongues-- by which each individual would edify himself. He wrote, "I would that ye all spake with tongues". But he preferred that they prophesied.
Greater is he who speaks in tongues than he who speaks in tongues, except he interpret, that the church may be edified. If you speak in tongues and edify yourself, that is a desirable thing. Paul would that you spoke with tongues. If you interpret the tongue, that's better. He who speaks in tongues and interprets is greater than he who speaks in tongues because he edifies the church. He who prophesies is greater than the one who speaks in tongues and doesn't interpret, because the one who speaks in tongues only builds himself up, but he who prophesies builds the church up.
We can see all these things in the passage.
To understand the passage, it helps to actually look at the specific things the verses teach, rather than focusing on pagan literature.
2. Is it not clear that Paul gave us a reason not to speak in an unknown tongue, instead of the assumption it was something he wanted us to do?
This I think should cement in place the real meaning Paul intended in verse 4:
Matthew 6:7-9 (NIV)
[SUP]7 [/SUP] And when you pray, do not keep on babbling like pagans, for they think they will be heard because of their many words.
[SUP]8 [/SUP] Do not be like them, for your Father knows what you need before you ask him.
[SUP]9 [/SUP] "This, then, is how you should pray: "'Our Father in heaven, hallowed be your name,
3. Now does not that above verse clarify that Jesus does not want us to pray in an unknown tongue, but rather in our OWN language making our requests understandable to both GOD and ourselves?
This I think should cement in place the real meaning Paul intended in verse 4:
Matthew 6:7-9 (NIV)
[SUP]7 [/SUP] And when you pray, do not keep on babbling like pagans, for they think they will be heard because of their many words.
[SUP]8 [/SUP] Do not be like them, for your Father knows what you need before you ask him.
[SUP]9 [/SUP] "This, then, is how you should pray: "'Our Father in heaven, hallowed be your name,
3. Now does not that above verse clarify that Jesus does not want us to pray in an unknown tongue, but rather in our OWN language making our requests understandable to both GOD and ourselves?
You are reading a contradiction here between what you think Jesus was saying and what Paul actually wrote. There is no reason to think that 'vain repetitions' here refers to speaking in tongues. To believe that, one would need to reject what Paul wrote in I Corinthians 14, or have a really twisted interpretation that doesn't deal with the details of the passage like you have suggested.
I posted a summary of views from different authors in a Wikipedia article. None of them accept your view, which appears to be based on a kind of folk etymology approach-- assertions based on the morphemes in the Greek words.