Daniel tells us absolutely nothing about the length of the Great Tribulation. In fact, he tells us nothing about it at all,
per se, as
defining it. Nowhere in Daniel does it actually indicate "this is talking about the Great Tribulation"; the closest thing to it would be Daniel 11:31-39.
If anyone wants to say that Daniel 12:1 refers to the Great Tribulation, then that does not leave any room for more than a 'mention' ot if.
Considering that Daniel 12:1 occurs after everything in Daniel 11 ( including the AoD ), consider this:
~ the last part of Daniel 11:35, starting with the phrase "to the time of the end"
~ the phrase "and shall prosper till the indignation be accomplished" in Daniel 11:36
~ Daniel 11:40-45
How much time will have elapsed between Daniel 11:31 and Daniel 12:1?
Yet...
Matthew 24:
[SUP]20[/SUP] But pray ye that your flight be not in the winter, neither on the sabbath day: [SUP]21[/SUP] For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be.
In these verses, it seems to "pinpoint" the beginning of the Great Tribulation to a single day.
What do you think about that?