Flood - worldwide or local?

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valiant said:
the highest mountain known to Noah. The flood was vast (where mankind had reached) but not necessarily worldwide as we know it today.

We can stand in many places and see no mountains at all.
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How do you know what was known to Noah? How do you know what Noah's boundaries were?

Did I miss your answer on this? I asked it earlier.
 
dcontroversal said:
You do understand the whole order of things right and Peter's version of the world that was PERISHED and the world that NOW IS.....

your right bro...enough said...no sense in me arguing with a fence post ;)
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Peter's view of the world was like Noah's, limited. He had no more idea than Noah of the world as we know it. He simply used Bible language.
 
valiant said:
Peter's view of the world was like Noah's, limited. He had no more idea than Noah of the world as we know it. He simply used Bible language.
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I don't think so pal....these men were inspired by GOD to write what was written....their view of the world had NO bearing on what was written....and to think otherwise is absurd
 
valiant said:
I use my common sense in knowing that his knowledge was limited.
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My common sense tells me that we WAAAYYYYYYYY underestimate the knowledge they had.

We get a sense of it with the tower of babel. Just look how quick the tower of babel came along after the flood. And mankind was living in"the day's before Babel" for generations and generations and living for 100's of years.

I believe the majority of them would make any of us today...look like morons.
 
dcontroversal said:
I don't think so pal....these men were inspired by GOD to write what was written....their view of the world had NO bearing on what was written....and to think otherwise is absurd
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when they used eretz they used it as they understood it. they had no other way
 
I think Peter's statement is quite informative:


2 Pe 2:5 and the old world did not spare, but the eighth person, Noah, of righteousness a preacher, did keep, a flood on the world of the impious having brought,
 
wsblind said:
My common sense tells me that we WAAAYYYYYYYY underestimate the knowledge they had.

We get a sense of it with the tower of babel. Just look how quick the tower of babel came along after the flood. And mankind was living in"the day's before Babel" for generations and generations and living for 100's of years.

I believe the majority of them would make any of us today...look like morons.
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well if you think they knew and spoke of the world as we know it I pity you :)

it suggests your name is right LOL
 
valiant said:
well if you think they knew and spoke of the world as we know it I pity you :)

it suggests your name is right LOL
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Well if you think Noah was in diapers and sucking his thumb.......I don't pity ya,I just disagree.:cool:
 
valiant said:
when they used eretz they used it as they understood it. they had no other way
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Even if this point is true, it does not preclude a global flood. To say that they used 'eretz' to mean the entire known world, and then turn around and claim that the flood only covered their "known world" is circular reasoning and equivocation.

If they didn't know about the world "beyond", how could they reasonably know whether or not it was flooded?
 
valiant said:
Precisely. Or even think about it
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That was a non-answer. You are claiming that the word "eretz" means "the known world". Then you claim that because "eretz" means "the known world" that the flood, which covered the "eretz", only covered the known world.

This is circular reasoning. There is nothing in the narrative which limits the flood to "the known world". If Noah did not have a word for the world beyond what he "knew" then how could he have used such a word?

Again, there is nothing about "eretz" which limits the flood to being local. If it means "to the extent of the known world" then it is certainly possibly that it exceeds the known world. The problem here is logical, not lexical.
 
valiant said:
when they used eretz they used it as they understood it. they had no other way
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You know...I agree with many things you say...but this view you hold not only denies, but rejects the fact that GOD INSPIRED EVERY WORD WRITTEN and your view is erroneous bro...
 
valiant said:
it is quite obvious that Genesis was written by different hands due to style and content, to say nothing of the covenants around which it was written. For example chapter 14 is totally different from the rest of Genesis, and calls Abram 'the Hebrew', suggesting it was compiled by a foreigner ('the Hebrew' was a foreigners way of seeing the people of God). It dates itself by foreign rulers.

We have to ask, 'why was Genesis written around covenants'? And the answer is because they were the main reason for very early writings. Why was Isaac written about so little? Because he had few covenants.

Furthermore the phrase 'these are the family histories of --' were typical of a colophon added to a tablet to show what it was about or who wrote it.

In those days the fact that Moses took earlier tablets and incorporated them into his text would have been quite normal.
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Besides YOUR common Sense, where are you getting this from? You don't believe Moses wrote all of Genesis?

Why can't we just believe God? Why do we have to depend on YOUR common sense? I don't get it.
 
Dino246 said:
That was a non-answer. You are claiming that the word "eretz" means "the known world". Then you claim that because "eretz" means "the known world" that the flood, which covered the "eretz", only covered the known world.

This is circular reasoning. There is nothing in the narrative which limits the flood to "the known world". If Noah did not have a word for the world beyond what he "knew" then how could he have used such a word?

Again, there is nothing about "eretz" which limits the flood to being local. If it means "to the extent of the known world" then it is certainly possibly that it exceeds the known world. The problem here is logical, not lexical.
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Wow, I really am an idiot. A content idiot though.:cool:

Edit~~makes total sense to me, I just had to study an hour to comprehend it.
 
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wsblind said:
Wow, I really am an idiot. A content idiot though.:cool:

Edit~~makes total sense to me, I just had to study an hour to comprehend it.
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I'm certain you're no idiot. I suspect that if I hadn't written it, I'd need to take time to get my head around it too. The reading I've done in the last couple of years on logical arguments and fallacies has really benefited my critical thinking ability. :)
 
Dino246 said:
This is circular reasoning. There is nothing in the narrative which limits the flood to "the known world".
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There are some verses that make it clear that it is not about the whole planet.

For example:

"By the twenty-seventh day of the second month the earth was completely dry." (Genesis 8:14, NIV)

Earth is a wrong word here. Land known to Noah was completely dry.

Planet completely dry = death for all living immediately. World oceans must stay for life to be possible.

From such places like this it is quite certain that the word "eretz" means local land, not the whole planet.
 
hornetguy

Your right it doesn't say flesh. I could argue about the number 8 and other things. But I rather keep it civil. Perhaps you can tell me where the other Races came from and how from one family we have all of them. My belief is they came from the 6th day of creation when God created Man.
 
Thought of another point today......if the flood was local and not global what is the point of the rainbow which is seen worldwide?
 
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