Isn't it amazing that the TR was originated by a catholic priest, but the cultic KJVO'ers here give that a bye?
Never heard that before, do you have a link?
King James Bible ONLY? Or NOT?
- Thread starter Dai3234
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Never heard that before, do you have a link?
You're showing your ignorance. You should've already known who originated the TR. But you want a link. And are preaching TR.
Interesting.
The English definition means the same:
verb
- The definition of begotten means something created something else or someone fathered a child.
- An example of begotten is when a small lie turns into a robbery.
- An example of begotten is a man and woman having their first child.
Read more at Begotten dictionary definition | begotten defined
In 1 Peter was God talking about ex 1 or example 2? How can we know?
In all that I've seen about the TR, both sides of it, I've never heard anyone say it origninated by a Catholic priest. Are you sure you're not confusing the TR with the VATICAN - US?
Anyone can know which "definition" is used... at least anyone that is not deliberately playing stupid.
You are going so far out on that limb, trying desperately to hold on to your delusion of KJV superiority, that I'm not sure you will ever find your way back.
I'm trying to help you understand what begotten again means. It doesn't ONLY mean the 2nd birth.
I'm very familiar with KJV English... I have years of experience reading it. The KJV is saying that God has brought us again to a lively hope. If you are right and I am wrong, then what do we do with 1 Peter 1:23? Either God zapped a new birth in us or we are born again by reading the word.
1 Peter 1:23 KJV
Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever.
H
Huckleberry
Guest
Well you are fool.
You are looking at the meaning of an English word in the Middle Ages!
What you should be doing is looking to the meaning of the word ἀναγεννήσας AS THE AUTHOR OF 1 PETER INTENDED IT TO MEAN.
And that meaning is unambiguous: "born again".
What you are doing is just like this:
Imagine reading a Jane Austin novel.
You come across her describing one of her characters as gay.
Do you immediately jump to the conclusion that she intends you to think that the character is homosexual?
Of course not!
When she was alive "gay" did not mean "homosexual" but "carefree and happy".
Not to mention the obvious context of the description.
You are violating all the rules of language by attempting this atrocity.
You are trying to push the meaning of an English word as defined in the Middle Ages onto a Greek word penned 1600 years before!
And then you wonder why no-one takes you and your ilk seriously!
However, the parallel thread you have just begun no doubt explains why you are trying to impute this meaning onto 1 Peter 1:3.
Utter foolishness!
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Take a look at the defnition again. To begat or bear again. You're reading SPRITUAL birth into the definition when it's not there. You have to read OBJECTIVELY and don't add to the definitions meaning.
ἀναγεννάωanagennáō, an-ag-en-nah'-o; from G303 and G1080; to beget or (by extension) bear (again):—beget, (bear) × (again).
His latest misery was begotton again in alcohol. <-- Where is the 2nd birth in that statement?
His latest misery was ἀναγεννάωanagennáō in alchohol. <-- Here it is in Greek.
No, you take another look!
That word is a compound word made up of two parts.
γεννήσας - refers to be born or begetton.
ἀνα - means AGAIN.
ἀναγεννήσας - again-born i.e born again!
I realise that are completely over your head.
I am NOT reading anything into anything - thats strictly your department.
You do not know the Greek and that is obvious for all to see.
There is NO other way to read the word.
The KJV actually has it correct as I have already pointed out to you but seem a bit dense and did not understand.
The again part is just two words after the begotten bit but it means EXACTLY the same as the NASB rendering.
It is YOU that is wanting read ridiculous things into Scripture - it is very clear that you have theological presuppositions that do not allow you to see the clear truth.
Are these two statements a misuse of begotten again?
His latest misery was begotton again in alcohol.
His latest misery was ἀναγεννάωanagennáō in alchohol.
Can you read??
If so go back a few posts to where I told you NOT to try and impute the meaning of English words in the Middle Ages to Greek words written 1600 years before.
Unfortunately I see that you clearly did not bother with that part.
Ok, using only the Greek definition is the statement below valid?
His latest misery was ἀναγεννάωanagennáō in alcohol.
ἀναγεννάωanagennáō, an-ag-en-nah'-o; from G303 and G1080; to beget or (by extension) bear (again):—beget, (bear) × (again).
Was his latest misery beget, (bear) × (again) in alcohol?
Still trying to lead me by the nose I see.
Rather YOU come clean with whatever it is YOU want to say.
We are born again upon accepting Jesus, and we learn/hear about Jesus through the word of God. Therefore, our new birth comes about by reading the word.
It has nothing to do with a lie becoming a robbery, as in your example.
Is it your belief that every time we read the word, we are born again? How many times are we born again?
Im just going by the Greek definition which you refuse to accept as anything other than the spiritual birth which IS NOT even in the definition. No big deal, we disagree.
I am sorry:
313 /anagennáō ("born again, from above") is used twice in the NT (1 Pet 1:3,23) – both times referring to God regenerating a believer (giving a supernatural, new birth). HELPS Word Studies.
You just made contradictory statements - We are born again upon accepting Jesus, then you said our new birth comes about by reading the word. Which causes the new birth, accepting Jesus or reading the word?
We're not born again every time we read the word. The words we read form the Christ in us - that is the second birth or spiritual birth, the Christ in us. For example, the Christ in you is not the same Christ that's in me and that is being demonstrated on this thread. The Christ in you came from the words you read, the Christ in me came from the words I read.
I'm sure you understand that a physical body has DNA... words that form the physical man. The spritual body is no different, the words we read are the DNA of the Christ that gets formed in us.