To what end did Jesus put an end to the law?

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Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
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#41
The jots and tittles remain in place to judge the unrighteous,
meaning, those not covered by the blood of Jesus.
 

stillness

Senior Member
Jan 28, 2013
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Walk trough the valley
#42
For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.
For Christ is the fulfilment: Christ in You, "Daily pick up your cross and follow me." or is that to hard to bear and we would rather have the Law back.
"You have not hindered me at all... I die daily.
For us to learn to Love is about the Holy Spirit, Left as our inheritance Right in the relationship of Jesus with the Father, Left in His will, Right when He died.
"Walk in the Spirit and you will not fulfill the desires of the flesh." In response we Left our old life behind to Go on to Know the Lord, "Not by might nor by power, but by My Spirit sais the Lord."
Did you know Jesus did this on purpose? So that we would stop living for ourselves in a failed world.
 

Locutus

Senior Member
Feb 10, 2017
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#43
The jots and tittles remain in place to judge the unrighteous,
meaning, those not covered by the blood of Jesus.
Those jots and tittles were part of torah and only applicable to Israel.

Hebrews states that torah was nigh unto passing when it was written:

Heb 8:13 When He said, “A new covenant,” He has made the first obsolete. But whatever is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to disappear.
 

unobtrusive

Senior Member
Jul 23, 2017
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#44
Those are blood ordinances. Christ fulfilled them on the cross.
That's correct.

"Do not think that I will accuse you to the Father: there is one that accuseth you, even Moses, in whom ye trust." (John 5:45)

We must look at the law as spiritual, if we do not, then the physical will be at odds with the spiritual. WE are under the law when all we see in it is the physical, and nothing more. The Bible calls this division "enmity."


Then Jesus makes it clear that the Pharisees were unable to understand what the writings of Moses was truly presenting. The Pharisees could only see the physical because of their carnal analyses concerning the law. They were Judaizers to say the least. Then Jesus finishes His statement to the carnal Pharisees concerning the connection between Himself and Moses' writings when He says..."For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me; for he wrote of me.But if ye believe not his writings, how shall ye believe my words?


 

unobtrusive

Senior Member
Jul 23, 2017
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#45
Those jots and tittles were part of torah and only applicable to Israel.

Hebrews states that torah was nigh unto passing when it was written:

Heb 8:13 When He said, “A new covenant,” He has made the first obsolete. But whatever is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to disappear.
It is important to know that the writer of Hebrews was referring to physical temple worship. The word "covenant" is an added word by English translators. "Covenant" is an added word in verses 7, and 13, the one you quoted, and also added in Hebrews 9:1 that is clearly referencing a "worldly sanctuary" that verse 13 in chapter 8 says it was ready to "vanish away." It did in AD 70. These 2 verse are right next to each other. Because of this, it is obvious what the writer of Hebrews was focused on in chapter 8.

Just sayin' I had to re-evaluate this for months, and then I finally got it, even though at first I didn't want to accept the focus as to what Hebrews 8 and 9 were actually saying. Jesus said He was going to build the temple, (in 3 days) and that was the spiritual one in us as 1 Corinthians 3:16 says.

Hebrews chapter 8, verses 6, 8, 9, and 10 the word "covenant" isn't an added word.
Verse 6 refers to our Mediator, the covenant with Jesus Christ.
verse 8 refers to a new covenant with Israel.
verse 9 refers to the physical covenant with Israel concerning the exodus, escape from slavery.
Verse 10 refers to putting God's law into the hearts and minds of those who believe, confirming the prophecy of Jeremiah 31:33.

Of course a person needs to know something about it before they can have it in their heads and the very core of their being. I take that as a substantial part of the "law of creation" because we are all made in "their image." Genesis 1:27 and Romans 8:29 are related to the dispensations of the Gospel.



 
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Grandpa

Senior Member
Jun 24, 2011
11,551
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#46
On the other side of this, if the jots and tittles are gone, then so have the "heaven and earth".
Nope. You aren't reading it correctly.

Heaven and Earth being gone are not a requisite for all being fulfilled.

Heaven and Earth being gone are a requisite for not one jot or one tittle falling from the law, UNTIL ALL IS FULFILLED.


Really you must read the verse before this one and ask "Did the Lord accomplish what He came for or did He fail?".
 

Grandpa

Senior Member
Jun 24, 2011
11,551
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#47
It is important to know that the writer of Hebrews was referring to physical temple worship. The word "covenant" is an added word by English translators. "Covenant" is an added word in verses 7, and 13, the one you quoted, and also added in Hebrews 9:1 that is clearly referencing a "worldly sanctuary" that verse 13 in chapter 8 says it was ready to "vanish away." It did in AD 70. These 2 verse are right next to each other. Because of this, it is obvious what the writer of Hebrews was focused on in chapter 8.

Just sayin' I had to re-evaluate this for months, and then I finally got it, even though at first I didn't want to accept the focus as to what Hebrews 8 and 9 were actually saying. Jesus said He was going to build the temple, (in 3 days) and that was the spiritual one in us as 1 Corinthians 3:16 says.

Hebrews chapter 8, verses 6, 8, 9, and 10 the word "covenant" isn't an added word.
Verse 6 refers to our Mediator, the covenant with Jesus Christ.
verse 8 refers to a new covenant with Israel.
verse 9 refers to the physical covenant with Israel concerning the exodus, escape from slavery.
Verse 10 refers to putting God's law into the hearts and minds of those who believe, confirming the prophecy of Jeremiah 31:33.

Of course a person needs to know something about it before they can have it in their heads and the very core of their being. I take that as a substantial part of the "law of creation" because we are all made in "their image." Genesis 1:27 and Romans 8:29 are related to the dispensations of the Gospel.



Hebrews 8:13 [FONT=&quot]In that he saith, A new covenant, he hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away.

[/FONT]
Why didn't the scripture say "Temple" instead of covenant?

Because it is about the whole Law not just about some made up "temple" laws.


The only people that separate the law into imaginary parts are those that desire to still work at their favorite parts. They want to say some of it was fulfilled but we are still under and obligated to do this part.

Not one jot or one tittle shall pass away until all is fulfilled. Are your "temple" laws considered a jot or a tittle of the law? Yes, of course. There was no separation in the OT between a "temple" law or a "blood" ordinance. It was all part of the law. They couldn't have one without the other. Right?
 

Locutus

Senior Member
Feb 10, 2017
5,928
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#48
It is important to know that the writer of Hebrews was referring to physical temple worship. The word "covenant" is an added word by English translators. "Covenant" is an added word in verses 7, and 13, the one you quoted, and also added in Hebrews 9:1 that is clearly referencing a "worldly sanctuary" that verse 13 in chapter 8 says it was ready to "vanish away." It did in AD 70. These 2 verse are right next to each other. Because of this, it is obvious what the writer of Hebrews was focused on in chapter 8.


You KJV onlies take the cake....."thy words are pure" yada, yada...


(Heb 8:6 KJV) But now hath he obtained a more excellent ministry, by how much also he is the mediator of a better covenant, which was established upon better promises.

(Heb 8:8 KJV) For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah:

(Heb 8:10 KJV) For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:

The above "covenants" are not added in the text, therefore it is covenant that is being spoken of in Heb 8:13.

"Covenant" is added in "italics" so the uneducated would not get confused, in your case I guess the intent of doing so proved to be a failure....
 

Locutus

Senior Member
Feb 10, 2017
5,928
685
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#49
Nope. You aren't reading it correctly.

Heaven and Earth being gone are not a requisite for all being fulfilled.

Heaven and Earth being gone are a requisite for not one jot or one tittle falling from the law, UNTIL ALL IS FULFILLED.


Really you must read the verse before this one and ask "Did the Lord accomplish what He came for or did He fail?".
On the contrary, you aren't understanding it right, Jesus is not speaking of the literal "heaven and earth" he is speaking of the "heavens and earth" created in Isaiah:

Isa 51:16 And I have put my words in thy mouth, and I have covered thee in the shadow of mine hand, that I may plant the heavens, and lay the foundations of the earth, and say unto Zion, Thou art my people.

In the above Isaiah is speaking about the creation of "heaven and earth" of the people of Israel when he gave them the covenant at Sinai and declared "thou art my people".
 

unobtrusive

Senior Member
Jul 23, 2017
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#50
Hebrews 8:13 In that he saith, A new covenant, he hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away.

Why didn't the scripture say "Temple" instead of covenant?
Because in the previous verses (1 thru 4), that prefaces the chapter, it is clear that the "temple" in relation to the "priesthood" (physical) will be addressed in greater explanation through the rest of the chapter, summarizing the truth in the following chapter. One must take it in the entire context my friend, and I say this as to not refute the truth that you present here and there.

Because it is about the whole Law not just about some made up "temple" laws.

The only people that separate the law into imaginary parts are those that desire to still work at their favorite parts. They want to say some of it was fulfilled but we are still under and obligated to do this part.

Not one jot or one tittle shall pass away until all is fulfilled. Are your "temple" laws considered a jot or a tittle of the law? Yes, of course. There was no separation in the OT between a "temple" law or a "blood" ordinance. It was all part of the law. They couldn't have one without the other. Right?
Hebrews 8 is not talking about the entire law in the Pentateuch. Sorry,..., you are incorrect. I'll explain.

There was a priesthood covenant, within the physical temple worship made with hands, that was defiled.
"Remember them, O my God, because they have defiled the priesthood, and the covenant of the priesthood, and of the Levites." (Nehemiah 13:29)

There is also an everlasting priesthood covenant made without hands that cannot be defiled except by those who do not believe in Jesus Christ. This is an everlasting covenant.

"We heard him say, I will destroy this temple that is made with hands, and within three days I will build another made without hands." (Mark 14:58)
"Know ye not that ye are the temple of God, and that the Spirit of God dwelleth in you?If any man defile the temple of God, him shall God destroy; for the temple of God is holy, which temple ye are." (1 Corinthians 3:16-17)
"But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light;" (1 Peter 2:9)

This change concerning the "priesthood" transferred from Levi to Judah, on the "mount of transfiguration" doesn't change the spiritual aspects of the foreshadowing thereof.

And he shall have it, and his seed after him, even the covenant of an everlasting priesthood; because he was zealous for his God, and made an atonement for the children of Israel. (Numbers 25:13)

This is why Hebrews chapter 8 relates covenant with the temple. Please keep in mind, when a person consistently refers to the law delivered at mount Horeb in Arabia in a physical way only, that they are consistently bringing out carnal aspects rather than spiritual aspects according to the "New Covenant" truth.

"And I, brethren, could not speak unto you as unto spiritual, but as unto carnal, even as unto babes in Christ." (1 Corinthians 3:1)

Let's go backwards to Hebrews chapter 7 to confirm the truth about all this, and then I will end my expose' ...:eek:

"And it is yet far more evident: for that after the similitude of Melchisedec there ariseth another priest, Who is made, not after the law of a carnal commandment, but after the power of an endless life." (Hebrews 7:15-16)
 

Grandpa

Senior Member
Jun 24, 2011
11,551
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#51
Because in the previous verses (1 thru 4), that prefaces the chapter, it is clear that the "temple" in relation to the "priesthood" (physical) will be addressed in greater explanation through the rest of the chapter, summarizing the truth in the following chapter. One must take it in the entire context my friend, and I say this as to not refute the truth that you present here and there.

Hebrews 8 is not talking about the entire law in the Pentateuch. Sorry,..., you are incorrect. I'll explain.

There was a priesthood covenant, within the physical temple worship made with hands, that was defiled.
"Remember them, O my God, because they have defiled the priesthood, and the covenant of the priesthood, and of the Levites." (Nehemiah 13:29)

There is also an everlasting priesthood covenant made without hands that cannot be defiled except by those who do not believe in Jesus Christ. This is an everlasting covenant.

"We heard him say, I will destroy this temple that is made with hands, and within three days I will build another made without hands." (Mark 14:58)
"Know ye not that ye are the temple of God, and that the Spirit of God dwelleth in you?If any man defile the temple of God, him shall God destroy; for the temple of God is holy, which temple ye are." (1 Corinthians 3:16-17)
"But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light;" (1 Peter 2:9)

This change concerning the "priesthood" transferred from Levi to Judah, on the "mount of transfiguration" doesn't change the spiritual aspects of the foreshadowing thereof.

And he shall have it, and his seed after him, even the covenant of an everlasting priesthood; because he was zealous for his God, and made an atonement for the children of Israel. (Numbers 25:13)

This is why Hebrews chapter 8 relates covenant with the temple. Please keep in mind, when a person consistently refers to the law delivered at mount Horeb in Arabia in a physical way only, that they are consistently bringing out carnal aspects rather than spiritual aspects according to the "New Covenant" truth.

"And I, brethren, could not speak unto you as unto spiritual, but as unto carnal, even as unto babes in Christ." (1 Corinthians 3:1)

Let's go backwards to Hebrews chapter 7 to confirm the truth about all this, and then I will end my expose' ...:eek:

"And it is yet far more evident: for that after the similitude of Melchisedec there ariseth another priest, Who is made, not after the law of a carnal commandment, but after the power of an endless life." (Hebrews 7:15-16)
I don't really find anything wrong with your post. There is no doubt that Hebrews speaks of priests and laws associated with the priesthood.

I hadn't remembered that scripture in Nehemiah being worded like that, either.

Hebrews 7:18-19
[FONT=&quot]18 For there is verily a disannulling of the commandment going before for the weakness and unprofitableness thereof.[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]19 For the law made nothing perfect, but the bringing in of a better hope did; by the which we draw nigh unto God.

You can't think this refers to a covenant of Priesthood and not to the whole law which includes the 10 Commandments?????? Can you...?[/FONT]
 

unobtrusive

Senior Member
Jul 23, 2017
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#52
I don't really find anything wrong with your post. There is no doubt that Hebrews speaks of priests and laws associated with the priesthood.

I hadn't remembered that scripture in Nehemiah being worded like that, either.

Hebrews 7:18-19
18 For there is verily a disannulling of the commandment going before for the weakness and unprofitableness thereof.
19 For the law made nothing perfect, but the bringing in of a better hope did; by the which we draw nigh unto God.

You can't think this refers to a covenant of Priesthood and not to the whole law which includes the 10 Commandments?????? Can you...?
Yes I can when taking Hebrews chapter 8 and 9 into proper context. Now let’s address Hebrew 7:18-19.

Verse 18
Disannulling = cancellation of the commandment

*Commandment = ἐντολή entolḗ, en-tol-ay'; an injunction, i.e. an **authoritative prescription:—commandment, precept.

As we can see, commandment in verse 18 is canceled or disannulled. That’s a fact.

This *commandment of authoritative prescriptions, distorted by Judaism was canceled or diannulled as I see it.
On the other hand the law (Torah) is not as good as the hope in Christ Jesus, yet it doesn’t say it’s canceled or disannulled.

The “law” (Torah) in verse 19 falls short of perfection, that was a prerequisite or dispensation so we could compare the inferior legalities to a better way than what the law provided in order to draw near toward God.

So in these 2 verses, “*commandment” and “law” are not real close in their Greek definition. One is **authoritative (demanded) and the other is the idea of usage, adhered to willingly.

Where is boasting then? It is excluded.
By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith. (Romans 3:27)

Obviously the "law of works" isn't good enough, but the Greek definition of "law" is the same in Romans 3:37


Now we know that without faith the law has no validity of righteousness to a religious individual, yet Paul continues to put faith and law together just as Jesus Christ has put His words and Moses’ writings together to those that were distorting the entire concept of righteousness (Pharisees).

The definition of law is exactly the same Greek word in both Hebrews 7:19 and Romans 3:27. The Greek pronunciation and definition thereof is νόμος nómos, nom'-os; law (through the idea of prescriptive usage), genitive case (regulation), specially, (of Moses (including the volume); also of the Gospel), or figuratively (a principle):—law.

So finally, what’s this hope that Hebrews 7:19 mentions?
Hope = confidence. ἐλπίς elpís, el-pece'; from a primary ἔλπω élpō (to anticipate, usually with pleasure); expectation (abstractly or concretely) or confidence:—faith, hope.

So now we’re back to faith that is defined by the law according to Jesus. It’s a better way for sure. According to Jesus, if we don’t believe the writings of Moses, then how are we going to believe what He says? John 5:47

Surely we do not want to follow the way of the Judaizing Pharisees by adhering to a law without faith.

Without faith, the law is of no effect. “For if they which are of the law be heirs, faith is made void, and the promise made of none effect:” (Romans 4:14)

Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law. (Romans 3:31)
 
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EarsToHear

Senior Member
Jan 14, 2016
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#53
Hosea 6:6 For I desired mercy, and not sacrifice; and the knowledge of God more than burnt offerings.


Those ordinances and rituals, neither of which are the Law, mean little to God. What He wants most is your love. And if you love Him, you will do your best to obey His Law.


God isn't hard on man, for man makes it hard on himself. God has love and mercy for his Children, and all He desires from us is our love and worship. Do you really want to please your Heavenly Father? He tells us here what He wants of you. God wants your love [mercy], and not your sacrifices, and wealth, for He already has that.


When was the last time you told your Heavenly Father that you love Him? It is the love and worship that you can give God, that He created you. That is the very purpose of your existence. Have you given God any pleasure through your life? Talk to Him and get to know Him, He is your friend.
 

EarsToHear

Senior Member
Jan 14, 2016
340
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#54
Romans 2:28 For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh (blood ordinance, not the Law):

This word "Jew" should read "Israelite", one of the twelve tribes. In other words, your outward appearance has very little to do with circumcision [repentance and belief by faith]. Paul is stating that it is what is inside your heart, which is your mind that is important to God.

Romans 2:29 But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.

Paul is saying that anyone that knows to do good, and does what he knows is right and just, that person is of Israel, and this verse is directed to both male and female. This is a spiritual circumcision and not of the flesh, and that is why gender doesn't matter. God is the one that gives the praise to those that not only have the form of Godliness, but do the spirit of the letter of the law, either by written law or by nature.


If the Word is taught by a preacher, then the very emotions of God that are placed in the Word must be expressed also. The pages of God's Word must come alive to the listener, to where there is no confusion to those being taught. God is saying that He has praise for those that will teach in this fashion.
 

unobtrusive

Senior Member
Jul 23, 2017
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#55
Romans 2:28 For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh (blood ordinance, not the Law):

This word "Jew" should read "Israelite", one of the twelve tribes. In other words, your outward appearance has very little to do with circumcision [repentance and belief by faith]. Paul is stating that it is what is inside your heart, which is your mind that is important to God.

Romans 2:29 But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God.

Paul is saying that anyone that knows to do good, and does what he knows is right and just, that person is of Israel, and this verse is directed to both male and female. This is a spiritual circumcision and not of the flesh, and that is why gender doesn't matter. God is the one that gives the praise to those that not only have the form of Godliness, but do the spirit of the letter of the law, either by written law or by nature.


If the Word is taught by a preacher, then the very emotions of God that are placed in the Word must be expressed also. The pages of God's Word must come alive to the listener, to where there is no confusion to those being taught. God is saying that He has praise for those that will teach in this fashion.
This is God's law...
"Circumcise therefore the foreskin of your heart, and be no more stiffnecked."
(Deuteronomy 10:16)

"And the Lord thy God will circumcise thine heart, and the heart of thy seed, to love the Lord thy God with all thine heart, and with all thy soul, that thou mayest live."
(Deuteronomy 30:6)

How 'bout that? The law of circumcision is very closely related to loving the Lord our God.

Obviously Jesus didn't put an end to law, or does "putting and end to" mean culmination
(The highest or climactic point of something, especially as attained after a long time), and or completion
(A finished work that can now be seen as originally intended at first)?

According to your post, EarsToHear, this law hasn't changed or been made void. Paul makes it clear. (Romans 2:28-29)
 
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Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
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#56
Obviously Jesus didn't put an end to law, or does "putting and end to" mean culmination...
Although one translation does have "culmination", when we examine the context that is incorrect. Paul is saying something else. Because the Jews (particularly the Pharisees) believed that doing the works of the Law -- "the Law for righteousness" -- could save them, they needed to know that now, after the coming of Christ, and His finished work of redemption, such thinking must come to an end. It was never true to begin with, but now, in view of the Gospel, it was totally exposed as false. Please note the context:

1 Brethren, my heart's desire and prayer to God for Israel is, that they might be saved.

2
For I bear them record that they have a zeal of God, but not according to knowledge.


3
For they being ignorant of God's righteousness, and going about to establish their own righteousness, have not submitted themselves unto the righteousness of God.


4
For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.


5
For Moses describeth the righteousness which is of the law, That the man which doeth those things shall live by them.


6
But the righteousness which is of faith speaketh on this wise, Say not in thine heart, Who shall ascend into heaven? (that is, to bring Christ down from above,

7
Or, Who shall descend into the deep? (that is, to bring up Christ again from the dead.)

8
But what saith it? The word is nigh thee, even in thy mouth, and in thy heart: that is, the word of faith, which we preach;


9
That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.




 
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unobtrusive

Senior Member
Jul 23, 2017
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#57
Although one translation does have "culmination", when we examine the context that is incorrect. Paul is saying something else. Because the Jews (particularly the Pharisees) believed that doing the works of the Law -- "the Law for righteousness" -- could save them, they needed to know that now, after the coming of Christ, and His finished work of redemption, such thinking must come to an end. It was never true to begin with, but now, in view of the Gospel, it was totally exposed as false. Please note the context:
Yes..... works of the law minus faith is debunked by the truth of the Gospel. We are not justified by works, we are justified by faith that establishes the law by faithful desire toward God through Jesus Christ. It's a spiritual concept, not carnal.

If we view the law with carnality only, we are actually "under the law." We are not meant to be in that position according to the Truth. The Pharisees were, and Jesus had problems with their Judaistic (sp) misconception.
 
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MarcR

Senior Member
Feb 12, 2015
5,486
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#58
Food for thought...

The only child listening to his father was his first born son. The other kids were very unruly, never taking their father’s advise seriously. Chaos filled the house, till finally the father had had enough, and said to his oldest son, “put and end to this discord, and tell your siblings the way you see it.” They refuse to listen to me. Maybe you can shed a new light on what’s right and then they will know how to act right for their own good.

Romans 10:1-4
1 Brethren, my heart's desire and prayer to God for Israel is, that they might be saved.
2 For I bear them record that they have a zeal of God, but not according to knowledge.
3 For they being ignorant of God's righteousness, and going about to establish their own righteousness, have not submitted themselves unto the righteousness of God.
4 For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.

What does “Christ is the end of the law” really mean? Did Christ bring the law to an end? If so, which law did Christ end? The law of gravity? The law of nature? The law of consequence?

Paul clearly states “But *before faith came, we were **kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed. Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith. But *after that faith is come, we are **no longer under a schoolmaster.” (Galatians 3:23-25)

The law that Paul is addressing in Galatians...νόμος nómos, nom'-os; from a primary νέμω némō (to parcel out, especially food or grazing to animals); law (through the idea of prescriptive usage), genitive case (regulation), specially, (of Moses (including the volume); also of the Gospel), or figuratively (a principle):—law.

The schoolmaster that Paul is addressing in Galatians...παιδαγωγός paidagōgós, pahee-dag-o-gos'; a boy-leader, i.e. a servant whose office it was to take the children to school; (by implication, (figuratively) a tutor ("pædagogue"): instructor, schoolmaster.

Schoolmaster… A tutor i.e. a guardian and guide of boys. Among the Greeks and the Romans the name was applied to trustworthy slaves who were charged with the duty of supervising the life and morals of boys belonging to the better class. The boys were not allowed so much as to step out of the house without them before arriving at *the age of manhood.
Your argument would be very instructive if end meant termination; but as it is used in Ro 10:4, end means goal or purpose.
 

Grandpa

Senior Member
Jun 24, 2011
11,551
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#59

So now we’re back to faith that is defined by the law according to Jesus. It’s a better way for sure. According to Jesus, if we don’t believe the writings of Moses, then how are we going to believe what He says? John 5:47

Surely we do not want to follow the way of the Judaizing Pharisees by adhering to a law without faith.

Without faith, the law is of no effect. “For if they which are of the law be heirs, faith is made void, and the promise made of none effect:” (Romans 4:14)

Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law. (Romans 3:31)
You've got things twisted up.

It appears you think the Lord came to help establish working at the law. To cause people to work at the law by faith. Minus some of the laws such as priesthood and sacrifice.

But the Lord has said that not one jot or tittle shall fall from the law until all is fulfilled. For You, according to your faith, some jots and tittles are no longer in effect. They have been fulfilled.

But you didn't really believe the Lord fully. According to your faith He did not fulfill ALL the law like He said. He only fulfilled part. And you think the Lord requires you to work at the parts He did not fulfill.


The Truth is that the Lord Jesus Christ fulfilled ALL of the law. According to Christianity and the faith of Christians, there is no more law for us to work at. IF we find ourselves working at some aspect of the law it means we don't believe that the Lord has fulfilled it. We are in unbelief.

There is no such thing as working at the law by faith. There is working at the law, which is not of faith. And there is resting in Christ, being the workmanship of God, by faith.

The Law doesn't define faith. The law is a description of what the Spirit does. Not coincidentally, when we abide in Christ we are CAUSED to walk in Gods Statutes by being His Workmanship. Not by our carnal understanding or carnal strength but by faith in Christ and His Rest.

Gods Statutes aren't carnal requirements written on stone. Gods Statutes are Spiritual written on the tables of our hearts. Faith, Love, Joy, Peace. They are given as a gift by His Grace and not something we try to emulate by our own understanding and strength.


So on one hand the Lord put an end to all of our work at the law. But on the other hand the Lord is the cause of us actually walking in His Statutes. Not by our faith in the law. Not by our understanding of the law. By being the workmanship of God. By resting in Christ. By faith.
 

unobtrusive

Senior Member
Jul 23, 2017
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#60
Your argument would be very instructive if end meant termination; but as it is used in Ro 10:4, end means goal or purpose.
Yes Jesus completed the goal and purpose, not the annihilation of His own Father's words.