hi -- this came up in another thread, and i was looking for clarification from someone who understands Greek grammar.
Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered. And he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit, because he maketh intercession for the saints according to the will of God.
(Romans 8:26-27, KJV)
the accusation is made that "grammatical error" which introduces heresy is made in verse 27 in the NIV, which reads:
particularly, that it should not say "the Spirit intercedes" because the interpretation given along with the accusation is that the "he" who searches the hearts and knows the mind of the Spirit is the same "he" that intercedes in the last part of the verse.
i understand that the Greek doesn't literally say "the Spirit intercedes" in v. 27 -- though it quite literally says that in v. 26.
i assume that the NIV translators made this change just to clarify the text in English, with the understanding that the one spoken of making intercession in v. 27 is the same one making intercession in v. 26
anyway -- what does the Greek support -- is the NIV correct in making this assumption, or should "he" making intercession in v. 27 be the same "he" that searches the hearts ((to my mind obviously YHVH, Jeremiah 17:10))?
thanks
Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered. And he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit, because he maketh intercession for the saints according to the will of God.
(Romans 8:26-27, KJV)
the accusation is made that "grammatical error" which introduces heresy is made in verse 27 in the NIV, which reads:
And he who searches our hearts knows the mind of the Spirit, because the Spirit intercedes for God’s people in accordance with the will of God.
particularly, that it should not say "the Spirit intercedes" because the interpretation given along with the accusation is that the "he" who searches the hearts and knows the mind of the Spirit is the same "he" that intercedes in the last part of the verse.
i understand that the Greek doesn't literally say "the Spirit intercedes" in v. 27 -- though it quite literally says that in v. 26.
i assume that the NIV translators made this change just to clarify the text in English, with the understanding that the one spoken of making intercession in v. 27 is the same one making intercession in v. 26
anyway -- what does the Greek support -- is the NIV correct in making this assumption, or should "he" making intercession in v. 27 be the same "he" that searches the hearts ((to my mind obviously YHVH, Jeremiah 17:10))?
thanks