A question about his Epistle, and why he words his introduction the way he does.
James 1:1) James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting.
What I am wondering about is the statement "to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad."
Isn't it odd that he would say "twelve tribes?" How is it possible that all twelve tribes had been "scattered abroad" by 49AD which is when it is believed he wrote his Epistle?
I "searched" this, and found the following:
The Epistle of James was written to Jewish Christians of the first century A.D. living in gentile communities outside Palestine, in an effort to expose hypocritical practices and to teach right Christian behavior.
Epistle of James - Theopedia.com
But this does not explain the "twelve tribes" statement, does it?
I know there are some here who research the History of Scripture, and I would appreciate some insight into this. I just do not see why he would state "to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad."
James 1:1) James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting.
What I am wondering about is the statement "to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad."
Isn't it odd that he would say "twelve tribes?" How is it possible that all twelve tribes had been "scattered abroad" by 49AD which is when it is believed he wrote his Epistle?
I "searched" this, and found the following:
The Epistle of James was written to Jewish Christians of the first century A.D. living in gentile communities outside Palestine, in an effort to expose hypocritical practices and to teach right Christian behavior.
Epistle of James - Theopedia.com
But this does not explain the "twelve tribes" statement, does it?
I know there are some here who research the History of Scripture, and I would appreciate some insight into this. I just do not see why he would state "to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad."