The King James Bible

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Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
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Why the KJV translators used Holy Ghost and Holy Spirit.

Holy Ghost found 90 times in the KJV.
Holy Spirit 7 times in the KJV.

These numbers have meaning and were done purposely.
What is/was the meaning and/or purpose of the distinction/difference?

Now I am curious to know :)
 
Nov 23, 2013
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What is/was the meaning and/or purpose of the distinction/difference?

Now I am curious to know :)
I'm glad you asked. :)

The 0 doesn't mean anything as far as I know... but that's probably just my lack of understanding right now.

Abraham was NINETY and NINE when he was circumcised - circumcision representing the new BIRTH in Christ.

Genesis 17:24 And Abraham was ninety years old and nine, when he was circumcised in the flesh of his foreskin.

Sarah was 90 years when she gave BIRTH to the child of promise.

Genesis 17:17 Then Abraham fell upon his face, and laughed, and said in his heart, Shall a child be born unto him that is an hundred years old? and shall Sarah, that is ninety years old, bear?

There are 9 FRUITS of the spirit.

Human gestation - FRUIT bearing is 9 months.

There are a lot more patterns where 9 things in a statement are tied to fruit bearing, but that's all that comes to mind right now. I need to start making a list of these things when I run across them.

I think most people understand the number 7 represents perfection or completeness.
 

Bladerunner

Senior Member
Aug 22, 2016
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What is/was the meaning and/or purpose of the distinction/difference?

Now I am curious to know :)
Hey Magenta..... How are you doing these days?


They are two different words: πνεῦμα Ghost g4151........ רוּחַ Spirit h7307

There is a lot of differences of opinion with scholars on this. Here is an excerpt from the XV Congress of International Organization for Septuagint and Cognate Studies in Munich 2013. It is on page 722. or you can use this link to get there.

Sorry, I cannot offer no more information as it is a perplexing interpretation of the LXX interpreter and Messianic interpreter.


https://books.google.com/books?id=u...AEIODAD#v=onepage&q=hebrew for πνεῦμα&f=false


Hope you have a Blessed evening
Blade\


 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
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I'm glad you asked. :)

The 0 doesn't mean anything as far as I know... but that's probably just my lack of understanding right now.

Abraham was NINETY and NINE when he was circumcised - circumcision representing the new BIRTH in Christ.

Genesis 17:24 And Abraham was ninety years old and nine, when he was circumcised in the flesh of his foreskin.

Sarah was 90 years when she gave BIRTH to the child of promise.

Genesis 17:17 Then Abraham fell upon his face, and laughed, and said in his heart, Shall a child be born unto him that is an hundred years old? and shall Sarah, that is ninety years old, bear?

There are 9 FRUITS of the spirit.

Human gestation - FRUIT bearing is 9 months.

There are a lot more patterns where 9 things in a statement are tied to fruit bearing, but that's all that comes to mind right now. I need to start making a list of these things when I run across them.

I think most people understand the number 7 represents perfection or completeness.
Thank you for answering. All the numbers confused me at first. Haha. I did not know it was going to be a numeric thing :D On another note, no wonder Sara laughed to be told she would bear a child at the age of ninety. Me? I would have cried :p Of course, our circumstances are completely different :D Yes, I did understand that about the number seven, and I have always had a thing for the number nine. For example, when I was a girl, walking to and home from school, I would turn house numbers into nines, using various mathematical functions. LOL
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
60,227
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Hey Magenta..... How are you doing these days?

They are two different words: πνεῦμα Ghost g4151........ רוּחַ Spirit h7307

There is a lot of differences of opinion with scholars on this. Here is an excerpt from the XV Congress of International Organization for Septuagint and Cognate Studies in Munich 2013. It is on page 722. or you can use this link to get there.

Sorry, I cannot offer no more information as it is a perplexing interpretation of the LXX interpreter and Messianic interpreter.

https://books.google.com/books?id=uG3tDAAAQBAJ&pg=PA722&dq=hebrew+for+%CF%80%CE%BD%CE%B5%E1%BF%A6%CE%BC%CE%B1&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjmr-7g8snZAhVLoFMKHUCxCzUQ6AEIODAD#v=onepage&q=hebrew%20for%20%CF%80%CE%BD%CE%B5%E1%BF%A6%CE%BC%CE%B1&f=false

Hope you have a Blessed evening
Blade\
Thank you, Bladerunner :) I will look into this when I get home from work :)It is almost time to leave... I am just waiting for some files to render so I can burn them to the hard drive network :D
 

MarcR

Senior Member
Feb 12, 2015
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I respect that question. here is the problem I have with saying "error " 1. God is not the author of Confusion
2. many many people wer and are saved by reading the KJV today.
3. The Holy Spirit would not be in error and use what is known as the Inerrant word of God to to reveal Jesus to those who are lost.

4. we are limited in our understanding so one cannot say something is an error until they have correctly understood the full meaning.
example in Hebrew faith is not as the greek term Believe as the Word Believe in Greek can mean too mental understanding. there are words used that speak to faith also in context to certian areas of the Bible. exmple :

trust, obey, call on, wait for, speak of , can be in context to " faith".

When we as Christians say for example the KJV has errors that term comes from a Liberial christian theology that does not hold to the word of God anyway. the term error would not be proper with those who are studying for more understanding.

would we tell anew believer the bible has errors? This is why we must be mature in our speaking of what is the word of God.

In the same post in which I cite the mistranslations I say that none of the errors separately or together are of such a nature as to compromise the message. I believe that God's Holy Spirit superintends transmission of God's Word NOT to exclude human error but to ensure that God's message is not compromised by human error.
 

Deade

Called of God
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In the same post in which I cite the mistranslations I say that none of the errors separately or together are of such a nature as to compromise the message. I believe that God's Holy Spirit superintends transmission of God's Word NOT to exclude human error but to ensure that God's message is not compromised by human error.
It's always nice to draw on your expertise of the original languages of the Bible. Most of the time you are right on. I won't let that stop me when I think you err. LOL :cool:
 
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CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
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I gave examples in this thread of some errors.

Your continued ad hominem, false accusations and name calling are duly noted. Nothing about me is liberal theologian, you really need to leave off this personal stuff bro. Maybe you should stop with this behavior? :)


let be even more clear it is well-known liberal theologians continue to attack the word of God. I am not saying "preacher4truth" is one . I am saying this context of KJV and error has long been the subtle attack to discredit the Word of God. That is why I will not use the term "Error" when speaking of the bible. We must use proper language in reverence to the Word of God. And take care not to add or take away. Were the writers of the KJV perfect ? NO! But the Author is.
 

hornetguy

Senior Member
Jan 18, 2016
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let be even more clear it is well-known liberal theologians continue to attack the word of God. I am not saying "preacher4truth" is one . I am saying this context of KJV and error has long been the subtle attack to discredit the Word of God. That is why I will not use the term "Error" when speaking of the bible. We must use proper language in reverence to the Word of God. And take care not to add or take away. Were the writers of the KJV perfect ? NO! But the Author is.
And the NASB and NKJV and RSV and NIV and.... ALL had the same author.
 

notuptome

Senior Member
May 17, 2013
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let be even more clear it is well-known liberal theologians continue to attack the word of God. I am not saying "preacher4truth" is one . I am saying this context of KJV and error has long been the subtle attack to discredit the Word of God. That is why I will not use the term "Error" when speaking of the bible. We must use proper language in reverence to the Word of God. And take care not to add or take away. Were the writers of the KJV perfect ? NO! But the Author is.
God authored the bible. All 66 books over 1000 years. God allowed His word to be translated into modern languages from the original Hebrew, Greek and Aramaic.

Before the KJV English translation the bible was translated into Latin and Luther translated it into German a fine an noble language both of which are of little use to English speaking peoples.

The KJV translators were honest men doing a herculean job of translating the bible into English. They noted in the forward to their translation that they did the very best job that they were able to do. They by no means intended to represent that their work was perfect. Gods word is indeed perfect and God has made it possible for men in virtually every language to have a copy of His word in a tongue they are able to comprehend. God has and continues to preserve His word that men may be made wise unto salvation in His Son Jesus Christ by grace through faith. Forgiveness of sin and eternal life will never change though heaven and earth pass away Gods word will remain unchanged.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 
Nov 24, 2017
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Yes, as is the RSV, NASB, NIV, NLT, etc.... all of the mainstream translations are the word of God translated into English.
"E′phraim has encompassed me with lies,and the house of Israel with deceit; but Judah is still known by God, and is faithful to the Holy One." (Hosea 11:12 RSV)

"Ephraim has surrounded me with lies, Israel with deceit. And Judah is unruly against God, even against the faithful Holy One." (Hosea 11:12 NIV)


So both of these verses are the word of God?



"Can two walk together, except they be agreed?" (Amos 3:3)


Which of these two translations made a liar out of God?



And the NASB and NKJV and RSV and NIV and.... ALL had the same author.
 

Lucy-Pevensie

Senior Member
Dec 20, 2017
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Which of these two translations made a liar out of God?
The Hebrew word, rud. "The meaning of this word is uncertain"

The Tanakh, has a footnote that states that the, “Meaning of Heb. [is] uncertain.”[1] That is, the meaning of the last half of the verse is uncertain.

The KJV is inconsistent in its translation of rud.

If you keep reading on into the next verse the question resolves itself (IMO)
 
Nov 24, 2017
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The Hebrew word, rud. "The meaning of this word is uncertain"

The Tanakh, has a footnote that states that the, “Meaning of Heb. [is] uncertain.”[1] That is, the meaning of the last half of the verse is uncertain.

The KJV is inconsistent in its translation of rud.

If you keep reading on into the next verse the question resolves itself (IMO)
The question still stands because both were put forth as being the word of God. Reading further does not necessarily resolve the issue. Look at historical events in 2 Kings in light of the phrase "Judah yet ruleth with God" as found in the KJB.

[FONT=&quot]“The word of the Lord that came unto Hosea, the son of Beeri, in the days of Uzziah, Jotham, Ahaz, and Hezekiah, kings of Judah, and in the days of Jeroboam the son of Joash, king of Israel.” (Hosea 1:1)[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]“…Jotham the son of Uzziah king of Judah to reign…..And he did that which was right in the sight of the LORD: he did according to all that his father Uzziah had done.” (2 Kings 32,34)[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]“Ahaz when he began to reign, and reigned sixteen years in Jerusalem, and did not that which was right in the sight of the LORD his God, like David his father.” (2 Kings 16:2)[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]“…Hezekiah the son of Ahaz king of Judah began to reign…And he did that which was right in the sight of the LORD, according to all that David his father did.[/FONT]
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT]

[FONT=&quot]So of the four kings listed in verse 1 only Ahaz “did not that which was right.” Hezekiah is followed by Manasseh the most wicked king of Judah who is followed by Josiah one of the best kings of Judah. I will say that it is the NIV that makes a liar of God in light of historical events. [/FONT]
 

MarcR

Senior Member
Feb 12, 2015
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The question still stands because both were put forth as being the word of God. Reading further does not necessarily resolve the issue. Look at historical events in 2 Kings in light of the phrase "Judah yet ruleth with God" as found in the KJB.

“The word of the Lord that came unto Hosea, the son of Beeri, in the days of Uzziah, Jotham, Ahaz, and Hezekiah, kings of Judah, and in the days of Jeroboam the son of Joash, king of Israel.” (Hosea 1:1)


“…Jotham the son of Uzziah king of Judah to reign…..And he did that which was right in the sight of the LORD: he did according to all that his father Uzziah had done.” (2 Kings 32,34)


Ahaz when he began to reign, and reigned sixteen years in Jerusalem, and did not that which was right in the sight of the LORD his God, like David his father.” (2 Kings 16:2)


“…Hezekiah the son of Ahaz king of Judah began to reign…And he did that which was right in the sight of the LORD, according to all that David his father did.


So of the four kings listed in verse 1 only Ahaz “did not that which was right.” Hezekiah is followed by Manasseh the most wicked king of Judah who is followed by Josiah one of the best kings of Judah. I will say that it is the NIV that makes a liar of God in light of historical events.

Let's compare:

Hos 1:1
1 A message came to Hosea from the Lord . He was the son of Beeri. The message came while Uzziah, Jotham, Ahaz and Hezekiah were kings of Judah. It also came while Jeroboam was king of Israel. He was the son of Jehoash. Here is what Hosea said.

NirV


Hos 1:1
1 The word of the Lord that came unto Hosea, the son of Beeri, in the days of Uzziah, Jotham, Ahaz, and Hezekiah, kings of Judah, and in the days of Jeroboam the son of Joash, king of Israel.

KJV


In Hebrew, Jehoash and Joash are different forms of the same name (like Bill and William)


2 Kings 15:32-34
In the second year of Pekah son of Remaliah king of Israel, Jotham son of Uzziah king of Judah began to reign.
33 He was twenty-five years old when he became king, and he reigned in Jerusalem sixteen years. His mother's name was Jerusha daughter of Zadok.
34 He did what was right in the eyes of the Lord , just as his father Uzziah had done.

NIV


2 Kings 15:32-34
32 In the second year of Pekah the son of Remaliah king of Israel began Jotham the son of Uzziah king of Judah to reign.
33 Five and twenty years old was he when he began to reign, and he reigned sixteen years in Jerusalem. And his mother's name was Jerusha, the daughter of Zadok.
34 And he did that which was right in the sight of the Lord : he did according to all that his father Uzziah had done.

KJV

What do you think is different here?

2 Kings 16:2
2 Ahaz was twenty years old when he became king, and he reigned in Jerusalem sixteen years. Unlike David his father, he did not do what was right in the eyes of the Lord his God.

NIV


2 Kings 16:2

2 Twenty years old was Ahaz when he began to reign, and reigned sixteen years in Jerusalem, and did not that which was right in the sight of the Lord his God, like David his father.

KJV


What do you think is different here?
 
Nov 24, 2017
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What do you think is different here?
The subject is the translation of Hosea 11:12 and the fact the the RSV and NIV disagree. The verses quoted are meant to support rendering of this verse as found in the KJB based on the phrase "Judah yet ruleth with God."
 

MarcR

Senior Member
Feb 12, 2015
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Which of these two translations made a liar out of God?
I don't think that is the intent of either version. The KJV translates the Hebrew 'eem' as both with and against in different places. Since Hosea from the beginning to the end of his prophesy speaks of Judah's apostasy; looking in context the NIV seems to have it right.
 
Nov 24, 2017
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I don't think that is the intent of either version. The KJV translates the Hebrew 'eem' as both with and against in different places. Since Hosea from the beginning to the end of his prophesy speaks of Judah's apostasy; looking in context the NIV seems to have it right.
They both cannot be true at the same time is the point. Judah is not mentioned after chapter 12 and Israel is carried into captivity by the Assyrians (and "Judah yet ruleth) and God uses Hezekiah to defeat the Assyrians in battle.
 

MarcR

Senior Member
Feb 12, 2015
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They both cannot be true at the same time is the point. Judah is not mentioned after chapter 12 and Israel is carried into captivity by the Assyrians (and "Judah yet ruleth) and God uses Hezekiah to defeat the Assyrians in battle.
You asked which version got it wrong. My answer was that in context with the rest of Hosea it appears that the KJV got it wrong. After castigating Judah through the entire book for apostasy, Hosea is very unlikely to have praised Judea for walking with God. Since both readings are linguistically defensible, the one that fits contextually is more likely correct.