KING JAMES VERSION BIBLE VS. MODERN ENGLISH BIBLES
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Can you see why I say the KJV brings more clarity than the originals. Monogenes really does reflect the concept if the original Hebrew word. Or perhaps it did back in its day but that meaning has been lost over the last 2000 years
Monogenes is a word with a broad spectrum of meaning of which begotten is one of the principle meanings. When words have multiple meanings it behooves a translator to see how the word is used in context with the situation of its present use.
The KJV translators did that here but neglected to do that in Luk 1:1-3, and elsewhere..
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Of all the other major translations only the YLT the Darby, the Amplified, and the NKJV got it right.
I meant to say monogenes does not reflect the meaning of the Hebrew word.
Honestly you're right, the translators have to do a ton of context interpretation to translate. Are there any secular sourced definitions of monogenes?
No.... that you breathe or that you are a breath of somebody else is a huge difference.
Radiates/is radiance - What we are really talking about is glory, is it not?
John 17:5: "And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was."
monogenes has at least 9 legitimate meanings. Unique or only is in fact the most prevalent. begotten is one of the legitimate meanings; and it does in fact fit here; but it ignores what we learn about Jesus elsewhere.
The new testament is directly quoting the Psalms, I would think the word meanings should match exactly.
Do you know where we get the definition of monogenes? Also do you know of any secular writings that used the word?
Monos = single, sole or only. ginomai = to cause to exist hence only begotten is the most literal meaning; but unique is the most frequent meaning.
Where does unique come from as it's not in the etymological definition? And this is what I'm trying to get at, where does "unique" come from, I just don't see it... it's almost seems as thouth it's just thrown in there lol.
common usage over time. It comes from monos and ginomai
caused to be only ore caused to be singular. the meanings have been transposed.
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I believe you are saying that the meaning of the word has morphed over time from only begotten to unique. Is this true?
Ben Johnson, a famous drama critic contemporary with William Shakespeare described Shakespeare's work as awful and artificial. At the time the words meant awesome and well crafted. In fact we still use artifice to mean craftsmanship.
I agree language changes over time, but when we are analyzing original writings, we have to use the definitions AT THE TIME of the orginal writings. I suspect the original meaning was "only begotten" based on the etymology.
If this is the case then I would suspect that most if not all words have gone the same way. If this is the case, do we really know what any of the Greek words truly meant at the time of their writings?