Before Jesus Christ died on the cross, water baptism was NOT essential to salvation. From the time that John the Baptist came, until the ascension of Jesus, the only thing required for salvation was repentance. That is what John preached: the baptism of repentance (Luke 3:3) He certainly did baptize people but he baptized them UNTO REPENTANCE (See Acts 19:1-4) This is the reason the thief on the cross was saved even though he did not get baptized.
But after Jesus ascended, the New Covenant went into effect. And since that time, baptism has been a requirement for salvation. How do we know that?
We know that Jesus was not baptized for the same reason we are baptized. Nothing that Jesus did was for the same reason we do it. He is our EXAMPLE! He had no sin so he did not need remission of sins. Yet he said he was being baptized to "fulfill all righteousness." He was saying that being baptized was "the right thing to do."
John also tells us the reason he was baptizing people in water:
John 1:
31And I knew him not: but that he should be made manifest to Israel, therefore am I come baptizing with water.
32And John bare record, saying, I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and it abode upon him.
33And I knew him not: but he that sent me to baptize with water, the same said unto me, Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him, the same is he which baptizeth with the Holy Ghost.
God told John to look for Messiah and he told him how he would know when he found him. The Messiah was to be revealed to John WHILE he was being baptized. So John's purpose for baptizing people was not the same as why we are baptized now. So you cannot compare people's baptisms before the cross to people's baptisms after the cross. They had two different purposes. Again, this is illustrated in Acts 19. If baptism was not essential (and doing it the right way i might add) why were these disciples baptized again?
But after Jesus ascended, the New Covenant went into effect. And since that time, baptism has been a requirement for salvation. How do we know that?
- John 3:5
- Mark 16:16
- Matthew 28:19
- Acts 2:38
- Romans 6:4
- Colossians 2:12
- 1 Peter 3:20-21
We know that Jesus was not baptized for the same reason we are baptized. Nothing that Jesus did was for the same reason we do it. He is our EXAMPLE! He had no sin so he did not need remission of sins. Yet he said he was being baptized to "fulfill all righteousness." He was saying that being baptized was "the right thing to do."
John also tells us the reason he was baptizing people in water:
John 1:
31And I knew him not: but that he should be made manifest to Israel, therefore am I come baptizing with water.
32And John bare record, saying, I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and it abode upon him.
33And I knew him not: but he that sent me to baptize with water, the same said unto me, Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him, the same is he which baptizeth with the Holy Ghost.
God told John to look for Messiah and he told him how he would know when he found him. The Messiah was to be revealed to John WHILE he was being baptized. So John's purpose for baptizing people was not the same as why we are baptized now. So you cannot compare people's baptisms before the cross to people's baptisms after the cross. They had two different purposes. Again, this is illustrated in Acts 19. If baptism was not essential (and doing it the right way i might add) why were these disciples baptized again?