Did Jesus Have The Human Sinful Nature?

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Sep 4, 2012
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Romans 8:3 says Jesus was made in the likeness (homoíōma) of sinful flesh. What he didn't say is that Jesus was made sinful flesh. Huge difference.

Theological Dictionary of the New Testament
homoíōma. This rare word means “what is similar,” “copy,” with a stress on the aspect of “similarity.” In the LXX it also takes on the sense of “form” (Dt. 4:12). This is the meaning in Rev. 9:7.
1. In Rom. 1:23 cultic “images” are contrasted with the glory of God; they are made in the form of human or animal bodies.
2. In Rom. 6:5 the baptized are in the “likeness” of Christ’s death and resurrection. Much debated is whether Paul’s point is that baptism is just a representation of Christ’s death or whether it is a likeness that contains the original. A first view is that it is a similitude or reproduction of Christ’s death and resurrection. A second view relates the “likeness” to our own death in baptism; we have grown together with a baptismal death that is like Christ’s death, which is the type that is reflected in the death experienced at baptism. A third view is that the word homoíōma denotes the mystical and sacramental death of the baptized with Christ; in Roman Catholic thinking Christ’s death is directly present in the sacrament. A fourth view is that we are sacramentally but not mystically integrated into Christ’s death as it is present in baptism. As concerns the likeness of the resurrection, there is debate as to whether this refers to mystical resurrection with Christ at baptism or to the future resurrection of the baptized. The two main lines of exegesis are a. that the baptized experience a mystical resurrection corresponding to that of Christ, and b. that they share sacramentally in Christ’s own resurrection. It may be noted (1) that since Paul speaks of the likeness rather than the event of Christ’s death and resurrection, he can hardly be referring to a mystical relation to the historical acts, (2) that since he has in view an organic link, he can hardly be saying that our experiences are copies of Christ’s, and (3) that we are thus led to the conclusion that the likeness in question is that of the death and resurrection of Christ, as they are now sacramentally present, to the historical acts, and that by means of this likeness we ourselves are thus closely linked with these saving realities.
3. In Rom. 5:14 Paul says that death holds sway even over those who did not sin like Adam, i.e., who did not copy Adam’s sin.
4. In Rom. 8:3 and Phil. 2:7 Paul uses the word with reference to Christ’s earthly life. In Rom. 8:3 he stresses the reality of Christ’s humanity by saying that he came in the “likeness” of sinful flesh; he entered the nexus of human sin but without becoming subject to the power of sin, as would be implied if Paul had simply said “in sinful flesh.” The homoíōma denotes likeness in appearance but distinction in essence. With the body the intrinsically sinless Christ becomes the representative of sinful humanity in order that by destroying this body God might cancel human sin. The term homoíōma is clearly an attempt to overcome the difficulty of having to say that the Christ in whom human sin is condemned is not himself a sinner. The word may well be an inadequate one, face to face with the mystery of Christ’s person and work, but it is not docetic as some suppose. Christ is not just a heavenly being with an external human form; he is fully and truly human, but not a sinner. The point is similar in Phil. 2:7, where Christ, taking servant form, is born in human “likeness.” The sense here is closer to that of form, but in the background are the two thoughts that he who is the full image of God becomes the image of man, and that the image means likeness rather than full identity, since Christ differs from all others by his consistent obedience (v. 8). Behind the statement lies the message of Jn. 1:14, namely, that God has entered human history. It is not implied that he has ceased to be God; even in his humanity Christ is at the same time a being of another kind. In the fathers Ignatius refers to the resurrection of believers corresponding to Christ’s “likeness” (Trallians 9.2), and an early sacramentary calls the bread the “likeness” of Christ’s body.
 
Jan 6, 2018
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My point is you don't respond to the points I make.

You had already mentioned Romans 7:9-11 and I said that it doesn't say what you say it says - Even though we are born with a sin nature we are spiritually alive until we commit our first sin at the age of accountability - nor does it say - Even though we are born with a sin nature we are spiritually alive until we commit our first sin at the age of accountability.
I responded exactly to what you objected to about Rom 7:9-11. Answer this: when was Paul alive before he spiritually died by breaking the Commandment?
 
Mar 28, 2016
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You mutilated the orthodox understanding of the hypostatic union, especially adding in your last phrase comparing His humanity to us not being God. Jesus was very man, of very man. He was 100% man, not like a man. You need to think about what you are writing.
A hypostatic union is a Catholic oral tradition of their fathers, making worship a God that has no form as if he did or could have a beginning . It is not a biblical doctrine . It attempts to make our supernatural God as in no nature, as a beginning, giving him one as if he was natural man ….a creation

For he is not a man, as I am, that I should answer him, and we should come together in judgment. Neither is there any daysman betwixt us, that might lay his hand upon us both.Job 9:23

I would think because God is not a man as us and neither is a infallible fleshly man to umpire between God not seen and man seen .The Son of man refused to be shown as a daysman. He gave glory to God as him not seen as being the good infallible teacher comforter and guide

And a certain ruler asked him, saying, Good Master, what shall I do to inherit eternal life? And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God. Thou knowest the commandments, Do not commit adultery, Do not kill, Do not steal, Do not bear false witness, Honour thy father and thy mother. Luke 18:18-20
 
Jan 6, 2018
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A hypostatic union is a Catholic oral tradition of their fathers, making worship a God that has no form as if he did or could have a beginning . It is not a biblical doctrine . It attempts to make our supernatural God as in no nature, as a beginning, giving him one as if he was natural man ….a creation

For he is not a man, as I am, that I should answer him, and we should come together in judgment. Neither is there any daysman betwixt us, that might lay his hand upon us both.Job 9:23

I would think because God is not a man as us and neither is a infallible fleshly man to umpire between God not seen and man seen .The Son of man refused to be shown as a daysman. He gave glory to God as him not seen as being the good infallible teacher comforter and guide

And a certain ruler asked him, saying, Good Master, what shall I do to inherit eternal life? And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? none is good, save one, that is, God. Thou knowest the commandments, Do not commit adultery, Do not kill, Do not steal, Do not bear false witness, Honour thy father and thy mother. Luke 18:18-20
The hypostatic union is not Biblical????? Where am I, in Heretics Chat.com?
 
Sep 4, 2012
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I responded exactly to what you objected to about Rom 7:9-11. Answer this: when was Paul alive before he spiritually died by breaking the Commandment?
Paul was spiritually dead when he was born. You really need to read Romans 7:9 with discernment. It says that Paul lived apart from the law at one time before he understood the commandment that "killed" him. Now if Paul was living apart from the law before that happened, what was that? Sin. It was sin for a Jew to not walk in the law. So claiming he didn't spiritually die until he realized what the commandment said is just silly.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
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dcontroversal said:
He disrobed himself of the Glory he had with the Father and took the form of SINFUL flesh.....
My response to this was:
THAT IS DEFINITELY NOT FROM SCRIPTURE. CHRIST TOOK THE FORM OF MAN -- HUMANITY. SINLESS HUMANITY.
There is a big theological difference between “the form of sinful flesh” and “the form of man... sinless humanity”.

So by carefully examining the verse in question (Phil 2:7) we will discover two things regarding the incarnation: (1) Christ laid aside equality with, or the form, of God and (2) Christ took the “likeness” or “similitude” or “form” of man. Not “sinful man”, but simply humanity, or sinless humanity (having no sin nature within).

1. When we look at the Critical and the Received Greek texts they are identical for Nestle-Aland and the Textus Receptus.

Nestle-Aland (Critical)
ἀλλὰ ἑαυτὸν ἐκένωσεν μορφὴν δούλου λαβών, ἐν ὁμοιώματι ἀνθρώπων γενόμενος·

Stephanus Textus Receptus (Received Text)
ἀλλ' ἑαυτὸν ἐκένωσεν μορφὴν δούλου λαβών ἐν ὁμοιώματι ἀνθρώπων γενόμενος·

2. When we look at the Interlinear English, here is how it reads literally:
But Himself emptied, [the] form of a servant having taken, in [the] likeness of men having been made

3. When we look at the King James translation, it comes the closest to the intent of the original: But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men.

4. Please note “emptied Himself” according to Thayer’s Greek Lexicon is “he laid aside equality with or the form of God” (made himself of no reputation) NOT “He disrobed himself of the Glory he had with the Father”.

The latter is a paraphrase which is not the exact meaning, since this passage also says that Jesus “thought it not robbery to be equal with God” (v. 6). In other words, since Jesus is God, it would not be inappropriate for Him to claim equality with God. Indeed He did so several times when He said that He was “I AM”.

Strong's Concordance
kenoó: to empty
Original Word: κενόω [from which we have ἐκένωσεν]
Part of Speech: Verb
Transliteration: kenoó
Phonetic Spelling: (ken-o'-o)
Short Definition: I empty, deprive of content, make unreal
Definition: (a) I empty, (b) I deprive of content, make unreal.


Thayer's Greek Lexicon
STRONGS NT 2758: κενόω
κενόω, κενῷ: (future κενώσω, 1 Corinthians 9:15 L text T Tr WH); 1 aorist ἐκενωσα; passive, perfect κεκνωμαι; 1 aorist ἐκενωθην;
1. to empty, make empty: ἑαυτόν ἐκένωσε, namely, τοῦ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ or τῆς μορφῆς τοῦΘεοῦ, i. e. he laid aside equality with or the form of God (said of Christ), Philippians 2:7...


5. But in v. 7 neither the Greek nor the English has the word “sinful”. That is significant. Also “likeness” does NOT mean “identical” but “similar” (a similitude), or a resemblance.

Strong's Concordance
homoióma: that which is made like (something)
Original Word: ὁμοίωμα, ατος, τό [from which we have ὁμοιώματι]
Part of Speech: Noun, Neuter
Transliteration: homoióma
Phonetic Spelling: (hom-oy'-o-mah)
Short Definition: a likeness, form, similitude
Definition: (originally: a thing made like something else), a likeness, or rather: form; a similitude.


The Lord Jesus Christ could not possibly be a man identical to other human beings since He was the God-Man. Therefore His likeness to mankind was sinless humanity – fully God and fully sinless Man.

For what the Law could not do, weak as it was through the flesh, God did: sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and as an offering for sin, He condemned sin in the flesh
This quotation from Rom 8:3 seems to suggest that Christ took “the form” of sinful flesh (sinful humanity). But the key to understanding what it means is the phrase “in the likeness” (as also stated in Phil 2:7). Once again what does “likeness” mean? Does it mean “identical to sinful humanity” or does it mean “resembling sinful humanity”? Christ appeared to be the same as other human beings, but He challenged His enemies “Which of you can convict me of sin?” (John 8:46). The answer is obvious. Once again, the same Greek word is used here for "likeness":

Strong's Concordance
homoióma: that which is made like (something)
Original Word: ὁμοίωμα, ατος, τό [from which we have ὁμοιώματι]
Part of Speech: Noun, Neuter
Transliteration: homoióma
Phonetic Spelling: (hom-oy'-o-mah)
Short Definition: a likeness, form, similitude
Definition: (originally: a thing made like something else), a likeness, or rather: form; a similitude


I am really sick of people mouthing like Nehemiah did against my BIBLICAL POST....YOU OWE ME AN APOLOGY PAL!!!!!
Sorry, but I owe you no apology. As you can see above, Christ took the form of sinless humanity, but APPEARED TO BE in the likeness of sinful humanity.
 
Jan 6, 2018
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My response to this was:

There is a big theological difference between “the form of sinful flesh” and “the form of man... sinless humanity”.

So by carefully examining the verse in question (Phil 2:7) we will discover two things regarding the incarnation: (1) Christ laid aside equality with, or the form, of God and (2) Christ took the “likeness” or “similitude” or “form” of man. Not “sinful man”, but simply humanity, or sinless humanity (having no sin nature within).

1. When we look at the Critical and the Received Greek texts they are identical for Nestle-Aland and the Textus Receptus.

Nestle-Aland (Critical)
ἀλλὰ ἑαυτὸν ἐκένωσεν μορφὴν δούλου λαβών, ἐν ὁμοιώματι ἀνθρώπων γενόμενος·

Stephanus Textus Receptus (Received Text)
ἀλλ' ἑαυτὸν ἐκένωσεν μορφὴν δούλου λαβών ἐν ὁμοιώματι ἀνθρώπων γενόμενος·

2. When we look at the Interlinear English, here is how it reads literally:
But Himself emptied, [the] form of a servant having taken, in [the] likeness of men having been made

3. When we look at the King James translation, it comes the closest to the intent of the original: But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men.

4. Please note “emptied Himself” according to Thayer’s Greek Lexicon is “he laid aside equality with or the form of God” (made himself of no reputation) NOT “He disrobed himself of the Glory he had with the Father”.

The latter is a paraphrase which is not the exact meaning, since this passage also says that Jesus “thought it not robbery to be equal with God” (v. 6). In other words, since Jesus is God, it would not be inappropriate for Him to claim equality with God. Indeed He did so several times when He said that He was “I AM”.

Strong's Concordance
kenoó: to empty
Original Word: κενόω [from which we have ἐκένωσεν]
Part of Speech: Verb
Transliteration: kenoó
Phonetic Spelling: (ken-o'-o)
Short Definition: I empty, deprive of content, make unreal
Definition: (a) I empty, (b) I deprive of content, make unreal.


Thayer's Greek Lexicon
STRONGS NT 2758: κενόω
κενόω, κενῷ: (future κενώσω, 1 Corinthians 9:15 L text T Tr WH); 1 aorist ἐκενωσα; passive, perfect κεκνωμαι; 1 aorist ἐκενωθην;
1. to empty, make empty: ἑαυτόν ἐκένωσε, namely, τοῦ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ or τῆς μορφῆς τοῦΘεοῦ, i. e. he laid aside equality with or the form of God (said of Christ), Philippians 2:7...


5. But in v. 7 neither the Greek nor the English has the word “sinful”. That is significant. Also “likeness” does NOT mean “identical” but “similar” (a similitude), or a resemblance.

Strong's Concordance
homoióma: that which is made like (something)
Original Word: ὁμοίωμα, ατος, τό [from which we have ὁμοιώματι]
Part of Speech: Noun, Neuter
Transliteration: homoióma
Phonetic Spelling: (hom-oy'-o-mah)
Short Definition: a likeness, form, similitude
Definition: (originally: a thing made like something else), a likeness, or rather: form; a similitude.


The Lord Jesus Christ could not possibly be a man identical to other human beings since He was the God-Man. Therefore His likeness to mankind was sinless humanity – fully God and fully sinless Man.



This quotation from Rom 8:3 seems to suggest that Christ took “the form” of sinful flesh (sinful humanity). But the key to understanding what it means is the phrase “in the likeness” (as also stated in Phil 2:7). Once again what does “likeness” mean? Does it mean “identical to sinful humanity” or does it mean “resembling sinful humanity”? Christ appeared to be the same as other human beings, but He challenged His enemies “Which of you can convict me of sin?” (John 8:46). The answer is obvious. Once again, the same Greek word is used here for "likeness":

Strong's Concordance
homoióma: that which is made like (something)
Original Word: ὁμοίωμα, ατος, τό [from which we have ὁμοιώματι]
Part of Speech: Noun, Neuter
Transliteration: homoióma
Phonetic Spelling: (hom-oy'-o-mah)
Short Definition: a likeness, form, similitude
Definition: (originally: a thing made like something else), a likeness, or rather: form; a similitude



Sorry, but I owe you no apology. As you can see above, Christ took the form of sinless humanity, but APPEARED TO BE in the likeness of sinful humanity.
Then you are only going to APPEAR TO BE resurrected. But as for me, I will actually be resurrected just as Christ was. Same word and grammar for "likeness" here:
For if we have become united with Him in the likeness of His death, certainly we shall also be in the likeness of His resurrection,
Romans 6:5 NASB
https://bible.com/bible/100/rom.6.5.NASB
 
Jan 6, 2018
1,796
154
63
My response to this was:

There is a big theological difference between “the form of sinful flesh” and “the form of man... sinless humanity”.

So by carefully examining the verse in question (Phil 2:7) we will discover two things regarding the incarnation: (1) Christ laid aside equality with, or the form, of God and (2) Christ took the “likeness” or “similitude” or “form” of man. Not “sinful man”, but simply humanity, or sinless humanity (having no sin nature within).

1. When we look at the Critical and the Received Greek texts they are identical for Nestle-Aland and the Textus Receptus.

Nestle-Aland (Critical)
ἀλλὰ ἑαυτὸν ἐκένωσεν μορφὴν δούλου λαβών, ἐν ὁμοιώματι ἀνθρώπων γενόμενος·

Stephanus Textus Receptus (Received Text)
ἀλλ' ἑαυτὸν ἐκένωσεν μορφὴν δούλου λαβών ἐν ὁμοιώματι ἀνθρώπων γενόμενος·

2. When we look at the Interlinear English, here is how it reads literally:
But Himself emptied, [the] form of a servant having taken, in [the] likeness of men having been made

3. When we look at the King James translation, it comes the closest to the intent of the original: But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men.

4. Please note “emptied Himself” according to Thayer’s Greek Lexicon is “he laid aside equality with or the form of God” (made himself of no reputation) NOT “He disrobed himself of the Glory he had with the Father”.

The latter is a paraphrase which is not the exact meaning, since this passage also says that Jesus “thought it not robbery to be equal with God” (v. 6). In other words, since Jesus is God, it would not be inappropriate for Him to claim equality with God. Indeed He did so several times when He said that He was “I AM”.

Strong's Concordance
kenoó: to empty
Original Word: κενόω [from which we have ἐκένωσεν]
Part of Speech: Verb
Transliteration: kenoó
Phonetic Spelling: (ken-o'-o)
Short Definition: I empty, deprive of content, make unreal
Definition: (a) I empty, (b) I deprive of content, make unreal.


Thayer's Greek Lexicon
STRONGS NT 2758: κενόω
κενόω, κενῷ: (future κενώσω, 1 Corinthians 9:15 L text T Tr WH); 1 aorist ἐκενωσα; passive, perfect κεκνωμαι; 1 aorist ἐκενωθην;
1. to empty, make empty: ἑαυτόν ἐκένωσε, namely, τοῦ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ or τῆς μορφῆς τοῦΘεοῦ, i. e. he laid aside equality with or the form of God (said of Christ), Philippians 2:7...


5. But in v. 7 neither the Greek nor the English has the word “sinful”. That is significant. Also “likeness” does NOT mean “identical” but “similar” (a similitude), or a resemblance.

Strong's Concordance
homoióma: that which is made like (something)
Original Word: ὁμοίωμα, ατος, τό [from which we have ὁμοιώματι]
Part of Speech: Noun, Neuter
Transliteration: homoióma
Phonetic Spelling: (hom-oy'-o-mah)
Short Definition: a likeness, form, similitude
Definition: (originally: a thing made like something else), a likeness, or rather: form; a similitude.


The Lord Jesus Christ could not possibly be a man identical to other human beings since He was the God-Man. Therefore His likeness to mankind was sinless humanity – fully God and fully sinless Man.



This quotation from Rom 8:3 seems to suggest that Christ took “the form” of sinful flesh (sinful humanity). But the key to understanding what it means is the phrase “in the likeness” (as also stated in Phil 2:7). Once again what does “likeness” mean? Does it mean “identical to sinful humanity” or does it mean “resembling sinful humanity”? Christ appeared to be the same as other human beings, but He challenged His enemies “Which of you can convict me of sin?” (John 8:46). The answer is obvious. Once again, the same Greek word is used here for "likeness":

Strong's Concordance
homoióma: that which is made like (something)
Original Word: ὁμοίωμα, ατος, τό [from which we have ὁμοιώματι]
Part of Speech: Noun, Neuter
Transliteration: homoióma
Phonetic Spelling: (hom-oy'-o-mah)
Short Definition: a likeness, form, similitude
Definition: (originally: a thing made like something else), a likeness, or rather: form; a similitude



Sorry, but I owe you no apology. As you can see above, Christ took the form of sinless humanity, but APPEARED TO BE in the likeness of sinful humanity.
The Greek phrase in Rom 8:3 "omoiwmati sarko amartia" (likeness of flesh of sin) would have Jesus only APPEAR TO BE of flesh according to you since you want him to only APPEAR TO BE of sin. But the real translation of that phrase goes like this:
The law of Moses was unable to save us because of the weakness of our sinful nature. So God did what the law could not do. He sent his own Son in a body like the bodies we sinners have. And in that body God declared an end to sin’s control over us by giving his Son as a sacrifice for our sins.
Romans 8:3 NLT
https://bible.com/bible/116/rom.8.3.NLT

And this one:

It is impossible to do what God’s standards demand because of the weakness our human nature has. But God sent his Son to have a human nature as sinners have and to pay for sin. That way God condemned sin in our corrupt nature.
Romans 8:3 GW
https://bible.com/bible/70/rom.8.3.GW
 
Jan 6, 2018
1,796
154
63
My response to this was:

There is a big theological difference between “the form of sinful flesh” and “the form of man... sinless humanity”.

So by carefully examining the verse in question (Phil 2:7) we will discover two things regarding the incarnation: (1) Christ laid aside equality with, or the form, of God and (2) Christ took the “likeness” or “similitude” or “form” of man. Not “sinful man”, but simply humanity, or sinless humanity (having no sin nature within).

1. When we look at the Critical and the Received Greek texts they are identical for Nestle-Aland and the Textus Receptus.

Nestle-Aland (Critical)
ἀλλὰ ἑαυτὸν ἐκένωσεν μορφὴν δούλου λαβών, ἐν ὁμοιώματι ἀνθρώπων γενόμενος·

Stephanus Textus Receptus (Received Text)
ἀλλ' ἑαυτὸν ἐκένωσεν μορφὴν δούλου λαβών ἐν ὁμοιώματι ἀνθρώπων γενόμενος·

2. When we look at the Interlinear English, here is how it reads literally:
But Himself emptied, [the] form of a servant having taken, in [the] likeness of men having been made

3. When we look at the King James translation, it comes the closest to the intent of the original: But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men.

4. Please note “emptied Himself” according to Thayer’s Greek Lexicon is “he laid aside equality with or the form of God” (made himself of no reputation) NOT “He disrobed himself of the Glory he had with the Father”.

The latter is a paraphrase which is not the exact meaning, since this passage also says that Jesus “thought it not robbery to be equal with God” (v. 6). In other words, since Jesus is God, it would not be inappropriate for Him to claim equality with God. Indeed He did so several times when He said that He was “I AM”.

Strong's Concordance
kenoó: to empty
Original Word: κενόω [from which we have ἐκένωσεν]
Part of Speech: Verb
Transliteration: kenoó
Phonetic Spelling: (ken-o'-o)
Short Definition: I empty, deprive of content, make unreal
Definition: (a) I empty, (b) I deprive of content, make unreal.


Thayer's Greek Lexicon
STRONGS NT 2758: κενόω
κενόω, κενῷ: (future κενώσω, 1 Corinthians 9:15 L text T Tr WH); 1 aorist ἐκενωσα; passive, perfect κεκνωμαι; 1 aorist ἐκενωθην;
1. to empty, make empty: ἑαυτόν ἐκένωσε, namely, τοῦ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ or τῆς μορφῆς τοῦΘεοῦ, i. e. he laid aside equality with or the form of God (said of Christ), Philippians 2:7...


5. But in v. 7 neither the Greek nor the English has the word “sinful”. That is significant. Also “likeness” does NOT mean “identical” but “similar” (a similitude), or a resemblance.

Strong's Concordance
homoióma: that which is made like (something)
Original Word: ὁμοίωμα, ατος, τό [from which we have ὁμοιώματι]
Part of Speech: Noun, Neuter
Transliteration: homoióma
Phonetic Spelling: (hom-oy'-o-mah)
Short Definition: a likeness, form, similitude
Definition: (originally: a thing made like something else), a likeness, or rather: form; a similitude.


The Lord Jesus Christ could not possibly be a man identical to other human beings since He was the God-Man. Therefore His likeness to mankind was sinless humanity – fully God and fully sinless Man.



This quotation from Rom 8:3 seems to suggest that Christ took “the form” of sinful flesh (sinful humanity). But the key to understanding what it means is the phrase “in the likeness” (as also stated in Phil 2:7). Once again what does “likeness” mean? Does it mean “identical to sinful humanity” or does it mean “resembling sinful humanity”? Christ appeared to be the same as other human beings, but He challenged His enemies “Which of you can convict me of sin?” (John 8:46). The answer is obvious. Once again, the same Greek word is used here for "likeness":

Strong's Concordance
homoióma: that which is made like (something)
Original Word: ὁμοίωμα, ατος, τό [from which we have ὁμοιώματι]
Part of Speech: Noun, Neuter
Transliteration: homoióma
Phonetic Spelling: (hom-oy'-o-mah)
Short Definition: a likeness, form, similitude
Definition: (originally: a thing made like something else), a likeness, or rather: form; a similitude



Sorry, but I owe you no apology. As you can see above, Christ took the form of sinless humanity, but APPEARED TO BE in the likeness of sinful humanity.
But you are not applying your same logic to Phil 2:7. Apply your same logic to it and you get that Jesus only APPEARED TO BE a man.
 
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pjharrison

Guest
What the law could not do since it was limited by the flesh, God did. He condemned sin in the flesh by sending His own Son in flesh like ours under sin’s domain, and as a sin offering,
Romans 8:3 HCSB
https://bible.com/bible/72/rom.8.3.HCSB
I would like to apologize if I upset you. You were right about Jesus having a sin nature, just as Adam did in the beginning, because if Adam did not have a sin nature he wouldn't of been able to sin. But I must explain to you that you said that Jesus was 50% Mary and 50% God. That's saying that God mated with Mary and had a son. And we know that is not true. Jesus was then and still is fully God. We have to acknowledge the virgin birth. The pregnant Mother and Child do not share the same blood. So Mary's DNA was not mixed with Jesus. Mary raised him, so she was his earthly mother. If you still don't agree with that . You are welcome to your opinion. So God Bless.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
26,074
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You were right about Jesus having a sin nature, just as Adam did in the beginning, because if Adam did not have a sin nature he wouldn't of been able to sin.
This is false. Adam was created perfect, but with the ability to either obey or disobey God. He did not have a sin nature, and neither did Christ. That is heresy.

All human beings since Adam are created with a corrupted human nature, and are therefore deemed to be sinners by birth (Rom 5:12). The inborn tendency of humans is to sin.

But the Lord Jesus Christ was supernaturally conceived by the Holy Spirit within the virgin Mary's womb. And since there was no human father, there was no sin nature. Please note carefully (Heb 7:26):

For such an high priest became us, who is holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners, and made higher than the heavens.
 

shrume

Senior Member
Jun 26, 2017
2,193
464
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...You were right about Jesus having a sin nature
No he was not. Jesus did not have a sin nature. If he had, he would not have been the perfect sacrifice.

just as Adam did in the beginning
Adam did not have a sin nature in the beginning. He gained his sin nature when he sinned.

because if Adam did not have a sin nature he wouldn't of been able to sin.
That's not true. There is a difference between having a sin nature and having free will.

You're claiming that God, who hates sin, created Adam with a sin nature. That's a problem.

But I must explain to you that you said that Jesus was 50% Mary and 50% God. That's saying that God mated with Mary and had a son. And we know that is not true. Jesus was then and still is fully God. We have to acknowledge the virgin birth. The pregnant Mother and Child do not share the same blood. So Mary's DNA was not mixed with Jesus. Mary raised him, so she was his earthly mother. If you still don't agree with that . You are welcome to your opinion. So God Bless.
In his humanity, Jesus was a man. The Father miraculously provided the seed that caused Mary to conceive the Messiah using one her eggs. Mary is the actual mother of Jesus.
 
Jan 6, 2018
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I would like to apologize if I upset you. You were right about Jesus having a sin nature, just as Adam did in the beginning, because if Adam did not have a sin nature he wouldn't of been able to sin. But I must explain to you that you said that Jesus was 50% Mary and 50% God. That's saying that God mated with Mary and had a son. And we know that is not true. Jesus was then and still is fully God. We have to acknowledge the virgin birth. The pregnant Mother and Child do not share the same blood. So Mary's DNA was not mixed with Jesus. Mary raised him, so she was his earthly mother. If you still don't agree with that . You are welcome to your opinion. So God Bless.
I didn't say Jesus was 50% Mary and 50% God. I said we are 50% each of our parents so that means Jesus was some % his mother. Maybe He was 100% Mary as for His humanity since God is not flesh.
 
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pjharrison

Guest
No he was not. Jesus did not have a sin nature. If he had, he would not have been the perfect sacrifice.


Adam did not have a sin nature in the beginning. He gained his sin nature when he sinned.


That's not true. There is a difference between having a sin nature and having free will.

You're claiming that God, who hates sin, created Adam with a sin nature. That's a problem.


In his humanity, Jesus was a man. The Father miraculously provided the seed that caused Mary to conceive the Messiah using one her eggs. Mary is the actual mother of Jesus.
Are you catholic. If Jesus would have came from one of Marys eggs he would not be God. The Holy Spirt placed him in side her womb. Read the story over again.
 
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pjharrison

Guest
This is false. Adam was created perfect, but with the ability to either obey or disobey God. He did not have a sin nature, and neither did Christ. That is heresy.

All human beings since Adam are created with a corrupted human nature, and are therefore deemed to be sinners by birth (Rom 5:12). The inborn tendency of humans is to sin.

But the Lord Jesus Christ was supernaturally conceived by the Holy Spirit within the virgin Mary's womb. And since there was no human father, there was no sin nature. Please note carefully (Heb 7:26):

For such an high priest became us, who is holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners, and made higher than the heavens.
If Adam did not have a sin nature he would not of been able to sin. Because sin would not have been in him. He would have been like the angels. The angels either serve or not serve. Not to serve is to sin for the angels.
 
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pjharrison

Guest
I didn't say Jesus was 50% Mary and 50% God. I said we are 50% each of our parents so that means Jesus was some % his mother. Maybe He was 100% Mary as for His humanity since God is not flesh.
If Jesus was 50% Mary, then what is the other 50%.
 

shrume

Senior Member
Jun 26, 2017
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You asked me that before. I am not a Catholic in any way, shape, or form.

If Jesus would have came from one of Marys eggs he would not be God. The Holy Spirt placed him in side her womb. Read the story over again.
I suggest you read the story over:

Luke 1:
31) And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS.

Luke 2:
21) And when eight days were accomplished for the circumcising of the child, his name was called JESUS, which was so named of the angel before he was conceived in the womb.

Do you understand what "conceived" means?
 

shrume

Senior Member
Jun 26, 2017
2,193
464
83
If Adam did not have a sin nature he would not of been able to sin.
Not true.

Because sin would not have been in him.
Sin was not in him when he was created.

He would have been like the angels. The angels either serve or not serve. Not to serve is to sin for the angels.
Satan was an angel, and he sinned.