I do not understand what you are saying. That it did not happen? What does it mean that it was animated (almost physical)?
That event never meant that the Father is a separate entity speaking from the clouds (separate place) and it never meant that the Holy spirit was separate entity coming in the form of a dove from a different place to rest on Jesus. The Father and the Holy spirit are within Jesus, but because John had to see something and hear the approval, it happened to John that the Father spoke from heaven and that the spirit descended on Jesus to fulfill what he was told earlier ("...the one who the spirit will descend and remain..").
If it is true that only John heard the voice and saw the dove, then these things appeared to him because he was in the spirit. Meaning that, it happened in his mind.
There's no way anyone would claim that the Father is a separate entity, speaking from heaven to the son who is on earth and conclude that they are two persons in one being. What do you mean one being when we can already see one being here on earth? it actually means the person speaking from heaven is not a being at all (this is blasphemous)
OR
You can conclude that the person speaking shares the same being with one He is speaking to which means that He is in Him but for the reasons i have already highlighted, it appeared to the listener and the hearer that it was distinct voice approving the one on the earth.
Again, I have no idea what you just said. Maybe I am just stupid, I do not now. Can you give a shorter answer directed specifically on that verse?
Jer 31:3
The LORD appeared to him from afar: “I have loved you with an everlasting love; therefore I have drawn you with loving devotion. 4Again I will build you, and you will be rebuilt, O Virgin Israel.
Psalms 103:17
But from everlasting to everlasting the loving devotion of the LORD extends to those who fear Him, and His righteousness to their children’s children—
So, if God has loved us with an everlasting love even before the world was created, doesn't it also mean He has been glorified with an everlasting glory even though the son has complied to His commands only recently?
You see, Jesus represents us when He makes that prayer because Jesus demonstrates sonship to us. If the Father is glorified because of the works that the Father has done through Jesus, then the Father will also be glorified through the works that He does through us and if the Father loved Jesus before the foundations of the world, He also loved us and that is the glory being shared before the foundations of the world.
Notice how Jesus keeps applying the same things for Himself and then to believers:
John 17:
1After Jesus said this, he looked toward heaven and prayed:
“Father, the hour has come. Glorify your Son, that your Son may glorify you.
2For you granted him authority over all people
that he might give eternal life to all those you have given him.
3Now this is eternal life: that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent.
4I have brought you glory on earth by finishing the work you gave me to do.
5And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began....
10All I have is yours, and all you have is mine.
And glory has come to me through them. ...
22I have given them the glory that you gave me, that they may be one as we are one—
23I in them and you in me—so that they may be brought to complete unity .....
24“Father, I want those you have given me to be with me where I am, and to see my glory, the glory you have given me because you loved me before the creation of the world. ....
26I have made you
e known to them, and will continue to make you known in order that the love you have for me may be in them and that I myself may be in them.”