When you say "there is about to be" in Acts 24: 15 you are referring to the Greek word "mello" It's Strong's Concordance 3195.
That word has a few different meanings. According to Thayer, who is widely regarded as one of the best lexicons of the past 100 years that word simply means, "something that is sure to happen."
If you notice the most literal translations like NKJV, ESV, NASB, none of them translate the word the way you suggested.
NKJV Acts 24: 15, "I have a hope in God, which they themselves also accept, that there WILL BE a resurrection from the dead, both of the just and the unjust."
ESV Acts 24: 15, "having a hope in God, which these men themselves accept, that there WILL BE a resurrection of both the just and the unjust."
NASB Acts 24: 15, "having a hope in God, which these men cherish themselves, that there shall CERTAINLY BE a resurrection of both the righteous and the wicked."
So we see all these translations line up with what Thayer says in his lexicon. These translation committees are full of men who are fluent in the biblical languages.
You are saying we should accept your version of "there is about to be" because it is a possibility for the word. That's how cults and false doctrines get started. Why do none of the major formal equivalence translations translate it your way then? In fact almost all the major translations, whether formal or dynamic, translate it as "will be", "certainly be" not "about to be".
They are all in agreement with each other and also Thayer's lexicon. But you are saying we should base a major doctrine like resurrection of the dead on an outlier possiblity in Acts 24: 15 when we have other clear texts from Scripture that describe it as future.
I don't think that is a good idea.