It has been said that early trinitarians altered the scripture in Matt. 28:19. That is why we don't have a second witness for it. It is said they altered the Didache also. Like Hevosmies said in post #140, they should take authority in the name of Jesus. We are Jesus' proxy when we baptize some.
John 1:33 "I myself did not know him, but he who sent me to baptize with water said to me, ‘He on whom you see the Spirit descend and remain, this is He who baptizes with the Holy Spirit.’"
So as long as we take authority as Jesus' proxy it is a proper baptism.
Pertaining to the Didache, it's obviously been altered in many ways.
One example alone is the word Eucharist (RCC term)
It seems odd that nowhere in the Holy Bible (KJV) or in the Hebrew Torah the word Eucharist exists, but it does in the Didache!
The Didache is supposed to come from the Apostles and their example in the Book of Acts.
So, how did Eucharist get into the Didache around 50 A.D. when the Apostles never used such a term?
Let's find out when this term was actually first used?
Where did the word Eucharist come from?
It is a mid 14th Century word from Greek 'Eukharista' meaning thanksgiving or gratitude and later the Lord's Supper.
Hmmmmm,
So, how does the portion of the Didache called the Eucharist (when the word did not exist until the 14th century) become a part of the 1st church example of the Disciples?
This might be why some think the Didache is gnostic. Clearly the portion about Eucharist is an add-on. I wonder what else is also an add-on to the Didache, since it does not match the first church example in the Book of Acts, or from anything that Paul wrote about?