Speaking in Tongues: Its Origins [Ancient and Modern], Purpose, and Power

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obedienttogod

Guest
So tell me the one who has exactly the same Call and gifts which Paul had. We have the Great commandment, yes, but no one has the same specific call then Paul had.


For his time, Billy Graham fulfilled a lot of what we see Paul did. Before that was men like D.L. Moody, Billy Sunday and there are several more. But as of today, I do not see anyone remotely close to what Paul had achieved.
 
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obedienttogod

Guest
You mean if somebody get the gift of healing ore helping ore doing miracles ore prophecie first need another human beeing for to be trained how to use this gift? You are saying that it is not sufficient to be guided from the Holy Spirit who gives this gift?
The believers in Corinth ( the only church which got this instructions) where in their spiritual stand, like babys. And seemingly missused this gifts for personal purpose.
This was not needed in all the other churches it seems. In the roman church it seems thatvspeaking in tongues played no role. It was not even mentioned in the gift list. And the roman letter really all includes what a christian need to know about christian life. So its really thinkable that speaking in tongues as it is taught today since 1900, was not mentioned with any word.
Of course we need spirituell teacher, but one who is the shepherd of a church must not have automatically the gift to teach them, but has the gift to lead them.
The todays view of a Pastor was not the view as it was taught in Pauls time.


This is how we know the Gifts vary. They all require faith, to begin with. But when there is a stark difference like touching someone in healing, compared to just beginning to speak in a language that no one else understands. There has to be common sense present to understand when Speaking in Tongues is appropriate vs just touching someone to heal them.

Paul taught his churches these differences. If Paul is an example, then churches that speak in Tongues should be taught when the appropriate situations are for Speaking in Tongues. That s the responsibility of the Pastor of that church. He/She after all, is the shepherd!!
 

Wansvic

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Nov 27, 2018
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Lol.. That assumes they believe in the gospel in the first place

The fact they have not even heard of a holy ghost shows they probably have not heard the gospel in its true form.
If all one had to do to receive the Holy Ghost was believe, Paul would not have made a distinction between the two.
 

Wansvic

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Nov 27, 2018
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No, if this text (acts 19) was written down for to show the disciples of John the baptist ( who know only his message and got waterbaptised) that they need the Holy Spirit who was come for everybody, then you cant use this text for to support your view.
I mean you can, but your conclusion is wrong.
You are avoiding the point that Paul separated the two experiences in the first place. If the infilling took place upon belief it stand's to reason that he would not have commented as he did.
 

wolfwint

Senior Member
Feb 15, 2014
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Look at the end of that verse. It's clear that the mysteries of the unknown Tongue that man cannot understand, but God can, is done in the Spirit.
Still this is nothing saying about praying in the spirit. The Spirit understands and translate all kinds of prayer. For us not understandable ore understandable.
 

wolfwint

Senior Member
Feb 15, 2014
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honestly, a first year Bible class would know better

if no one needs instruction, then let us redact all that Paul had to say because that man, that man, was ALWAYS giving instruction

the one who listens may hear and the one who hears may understand and the one who understands becomes wise and wisdom takes instruction

remarkable

but alas

it seems wisdom cries out in the streets for so many

perhaps those are the streets our Christ walks to choose those who are His

His words do not return empty to Him and He tosses them like seeds into the ground of the human heart

listen

do you hear?

ps...don't even try to answer. there is actually no question. it was all rhetorical.
Then you maby should distinguish between bible study, which is of course important that it is teached from God guided gifteted man of God.
And gifts which are given to certain people for a special purpose which not nessasarry can be explained throug others. For example many missionarys would not went to mission in the 19th century if they had listend to their Pastors which were against mission, ore dident recognice the call of the missionary.
 

wolfwint

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Feb 15, 2014
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You are avoiding the point that Paul separated the two experiences in the first place. If the infilling took place upon belief it stand's to reason that he would not have commented as he did.
Thats your view.
 

Wansvic

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Nov 27, 2018
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Another example in scripture that confirms belief and receiving the Holy Ghost are separate experiences is the record of the Samaritans receiving salvation. Notice verse 12 states those present believed Philip's message concerning the kingdom of God and were water baptized. Verses 14-17 state that Peter and John were then sent to enable them to receive the holy Ghost through the laying of hands:

"But when they believed Philip preaching the things concerning the kingdom of God, and the name of Jesus Christ, they were baptized, both men and women.

Then Simon himself believed also: and when he was baptized, he continued with Philip, and wondered, beholding the miracles and signs which were done.

Now when the apostles which were at Jerusalem heard that Samaria had received the word of God, they sent unto them Peter and John:

Who, when they were come down, prayed for them, that they might receive the Holy Ghost:

(For as yet he was fallen upon none of them: only they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.)

Then laid they their hands on them, and they received the Holy Ghost." Acts 8:12-17
 
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7seasrekeyed

Guest
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Then you maby should distinguish between bible study, which is of course important that it is teached from God guided gifteted man of God.
And gifts which are given to certain people for a special purpose which not nessasarry can be explained throug others. For example many missionarys would not went to mission in the 19th century if they had listend to their Pastors which were against mission, ore dident recognice the call of the missionary.

or, you could possibly refrain from saying teaching is not necessary regarding the gifts of the Holy Spirit or attempting to redirect what a post is actually about

the post was about you saying teaching is not necessary

you don't have to accept any gifts whatsoever

I have no idea why you mention missionaries. had nothing to do with the post or the response

it was about you saying that teaching is not needed concerning a gift from the Holy Spirit and since Paul devotes so much to teaching about these same gifts, I will definitely take his word for it
 

Wansvic

Well-known member
Nov 27, 2018
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Lol.. That assumes they believe in the gospel in the first place

The fact they have not even heard of a holy ghost shows they probably have not heard the gospel in its true form.
The following comment was posted to a different member but clearly addresses the error that believing prompts the automatic infilling of the Holy Ghost:
Another example in scripture that confirms belief and receiving the Holy Ghost are separate experiences is the record of the Samaritans receiving salvation. Notice verse 12 states those present believed Philip's message concerning the kingdom of God and were water baptized. Verses 14-17 state that Peter and John were then sent to enable them to receive the holy Ghost through the laying of hands:

"But when they believed Philip preaching the things concerning the kingdom of God, and the name of Jesus Christ, they were baptized, both men and women.

Then Simon himself believed also: and when he was baptized, he continued with Philip, and wondered, beholding the miracles and signs which were done.

Now when the apostles which were at Jerusalem heard that Samaria had received the word of God, they sent unto them Peter and John:

Who, when they were come down, prayed for them, that they might receive the Holy Ghost:

(For as yet he was fallen upon none of them: only they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.)

Then laid they their hands on them, and they received the Holy Ghost." Acts 8:12-17
 
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obedienttogod

Guest
Still this is nothing saying about praying in the spirit. The Spirit understands and translate all kinds of prayer. For us not understandable ore understandable.


Ok, here are some verses in a complete passage of scripture, that are CLEAR, that when these people received the Holy Spirit (this means they are now in the Spirit), they spoke in Tongues and there is no INTERPRETATION, because those around DID NOT UNDERSTAND what they were speaking.

(1) this passage proves speaking in Tongues in the Holy Spirit
(2) proves NO ONE around understood but knew it was Tongues
(3) there is NO INTERPRETATION because this is the UNKNOWN SPOKEN TONGUES that ONLY God can understand.
(4) This ultimately then PROVES what Paul claimed about the Unknown Tongues being a mystery spoken in the Spirit that no man understands, only God understands!!


God brought to my attention something that I will add:

Acts 10:
44 While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word.

45 And they of the circumcision which believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost.

46 For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God. Then answered Peter,

47 Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we?

48 And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord. Then prayed they him to tarry certain days.


I was asked how can Tongues happen and there be no interpretation?

Here is the perfect example: ^

Tongues is spoken and NO INTERPRETATION because it's obvious this is known as the UNKNOWN TONGUE, Paul speaks that ONLY GOD understands!!


Everything I have been saying the entire time concerning Tongues, that many of you have come against me about, is ALL proven in this passage of scripture!!
 
U

UnderGrace

Guest
Have you EVER HEARD the Heavenly Language spoken by God to His Angels?
How do you know there are not several dialects to it, like the Hebrew Language is complex?
The Hebrew Language, is the Language God chose to give His people, and it is one of the most complex languages known to mankind. So, why would you then think, the Heavenly Language we will speak when we get to Heaven, is simple like kindergarten language?

Could it be, because your understanding is basically limited to the kindergarten level?
Where is this heavenly language recorded in the scripture:unsure:
 
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UnderGrace

Guest
proper Greek
" 2 For he who is speaking in a unknown language is not speaking to men, but to God, for no one is hearing, yet in spirit he is speaking secrets."

You claim the UNKNOWN LANGUAGE is a foreign language.

Proper Greek claims the UNKNOWN LANGUAGE is not spoken to men (humans at all). It claims it is ONLY SPOKEN TO GOD!!

You are going to be a blast to correct!!
The word ``unknown` was not in the original text.

Proper Greek claims the UNKNOWN LANGUAGE is not spoken to men (humans at all).
Oh really where is this is scripture:unsure:
 
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UnderGrace

Guest
18 I thank God that I speak in a language more than all of you.

language = Γλώσσα

Translations of γλώσσα

tongue
γλώσσα



Paul is not a (mean person), so he would not brag about speaking more foreign languages, when THAT HAS nothing to do with God and to be thankful for.
He is writing a letter of encouragement.
Why would he tear them down over foreign languages?

This clearly is speaking about Tongues, as in, not of human languages!!
His letter was one of correction not encouragement.

You do realize that Corinth was a multilingual city with many dialects and foreign languages.
 
U

UnderGrace

Guest
proper Greek
" 2 For he who is speaking in a unknown language is not speaking to men, but to God, for no one is hearing, yet in spirit he is speaking secrets."

You claim the UNKNOWN LANGUAGE is a foreign language.

Proper Greek claims the UNKNOWN LANGUAGE is not spoken to men (humans at all). It claims it is ONLY SPOKEN TO GOD!!

You are going to be a blast to correct!!
Exactly, because if the language is not understood by anyone in the congregation, who is going to understand them... no one but God

God understand every earthly language.

The gift is not an heavenly language it is an earthly language.
 
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obedienttogod

Guest
Where is this heavenly language recorded in the scripture:unsure:


What kind of language in Heaven do you think they are speaking in? And yes, it could be Hebrew. But it is being done in the realms of Heaven. Therefore, it seems logical to address it as the Heavenly Language.
 
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obedienttogod

Guest
The word ``unknown` was not in the original text.
Both translation of the Greek specifies that Paul meant, men (humans like You and myself) can't understand what is being said, only God can. So basically, the Tongues Paul is speaking of here, is not another human language. It's a language unknown to all humans. It's a language only God knows!!



Oh really where is this is scripture:unsure:
When you quoted my post, you quoted the scripture where it is found.

" 2 For he who is speaking in a unknown language is not speaking to men, but to God, for no one is hearing, yet in spirit he is speaking secrets."
 
O

obedienttogod

Guest
His letter was one of correction not encouragement.

You do realize that Corinth was a multilingual city with many dialects and foreign languages.



Not sure why you are off on this tangent. Paul spoke of things pertaining to God, specifically the Holy Spirit in this passage.

Paul speaking about human languages DOES NOTHING for God!!

And we also know, Paul (WHO CLAIMED HE WAS BEING PERSONALLY INSTRUCTED BY YESHUA IN WHAT HE WROTE AND TAUGHT) would not be INSTRUCTED BY YESHUA to speak about silly human languages.

God, if we want to get technical here, would not be mean to the people of Corinth over stupid human languages. It's rather obvious, Paul is speaking about the Gift of the Holy Spirit (Tongues).
 
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obedienttogod

Guest
Exactly, because if the language is not understood by anyone in the congregation, who is going to understand them... no one but God

God understand every earthly language.

The gift is not an heavenly language it is an earthly language.



The verse specifies this type of Tongues IS NOT FOR MEN!!

This means that no man, no human language can understand this type of Language. It does not get any clearer than that!!


λαλῶν = lalōn speaking = SPEAKING

γλώσσῃ = glōssē in a tongue = IN A TONGUE

οὐκ = ouk not = NOT

ἀνθρώποις = anthrōpois to men = TO MEN

ἀλλὰ = alla but = BUT

Θεῷ· = Theō to God = TO GOD

γὰρ = gar for = FOR

οὐδεὶς = oudeis no one = NO ONE

ἀκούει = akouei can hear it = CAN HEAR IT

ἀλλὰ = alla but = BUT

Θεῷ· = Theō God = GOD

SPEAKING IN A TONGUE NOT TO MEN, BUT TO GOD, FOR NO ONE CAN HEAR IT, BUT GOD!!

Clearly, this is not a human language of any sort, if NO MAN CAN HEAR IT, but ONLY GOD CAN HEAR IT!!

It's therefore IMPOSSIBLE that Paul is speaking of a human language.
Humans can even understand Braille, but they CANNOT understand the language Paul is speaking about!!
 
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UnderGrace

Guest
You think "hearing" makes a difference....LOL

If someone is "speaking" and no one is "hearing" it is because they are not understanding, because it is a language (not unintelligible speech) that the congregation does not know, a foreign language

LOL.... I can read Braille but I cannot understand Chinese

The problem tongue(s)/languages were not known or understood by most of the Corinthian congregation (14:2,14,16).

The problem tongue/language when interpreted was interpreted into the Greek Language (common knowledge).

The problem tongue/language (even when not interpreted into Greek) built up the tongue/language-speaker (14:4,16-17).




The verse specifies this type of Tongues IS NOT FOR MEN!!

This means that no man, no human language can understand this type of Language. It does not get any clearer than that!!


λαλῶν = lalōn speaking = SPEAKING

γλώσσῃ = glōssē in a tongue = IN A TONGUE

οὐκ = ouk not = NOT

ἀνθρώποις = anthrōpois to men = TO MEN

ἀλλὰ = alla but = BUT

Θεῷ· = Theō to God = TO GOD

γὰρ = gar for = FOR

οὐδεὶς = oudeis no one = NO ONE

ἀκούει = akouei can hear it = CAN HEAR IT

ἀλλὰ = alla but = BUT

Θεῷ· = Theō God = GOD

SPEAKING IN A TONGUE NOT TO MEN, BUT TO GOD, FOR NO ONE CAN HEAR IT, BUT GOD!!

Clearly, this is not a human language of any sort, if NO MAN CAN HEAR IT, but ONLY GOD CAN HEAR IT!!

It's therefore IMPOSSIBLE that Paul is speaking of a human language.
Humans can even understand Braille, but they CANNOT understand the language Paul is speaking about!!