What part of cease, fail and vanish away do people not understand........?
Why do many use the Corinthian church as proof in the pudding when it is called carnal, immature and worldly with some 15 errors?
this isn't necessarily addressed to dcon, but my thoughts on his response which is the default position for some on this site
the Corinthian church received instruction from Paul
the NT is full of instructions and it seems people interpret them different ways
you ask why 'people use' these instructions because the church he sent these instructions to was, in your words, carnal etc...and yes they were in pretty bad shape
the interesting thing here, is that Paul didn't tell them they were going to hell or to shut up and never 'blabber around in tongues again'
nope. he did not do that at all
instead, he wrote down the instructions for how to act in a demeanor worthy of the gifts God gives by His Spirit
and you and others come along and for some reason, you think this is a bad example.
is it? let's see now.
David. bad example with regards to sin. how many men had to die because he numbered Israel? (I know...everyone thought I would mention Bathsheba but there is so much more) and then he had a man murdered by proxy, lied to everyone, ignored God over it etc...until he was called out by Nathan
and Moses who struck the rock and forfeited entering the promised land
and Abraham who kept lying about the fact the lovely Sarah was actually his wife
and Samson who had that affair and lost everything
and the entire nation of Israel who went a whoring
and really so much much more. individuals and an entire nation
yet God called everyone of those people and the entire nation
so why should the Corinthian church somehow become the example in scripture that is dirty and let's just ignore it?
since 16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
17 That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works. II Timothy 3:16-17
why would II Corinthians be an exception?
Paul was reproving, correcting if you will and instructing the Corinthians so that they could be perfect and thoroughly furnished to all good works, tongues being a part of it
Paul said do not forbid to speak in tongues. yet you and others do
continue to do so at your leisure. it is simply an unavoidable fact that you have an opinion and believe that tongues and knowledge have ceased. tongues could not have ceased if knowledge has not ceased. you're not dumb. you know that but you continue to argue otherwise
those who speak in tongues and heed the instructions are not rolling in the aisles, barking or crowing or acting out in immature emotional chaos. apparently, many do not heed the instructions
nothing has changed from the time Paul wrote what he did up until now.
so your opinion is how you conduct yourself
ditto for those who are not cessationists
and of course there are no more carnal, immature and or worldly Christians so we can dismiss all instruction
we have arrived at the perfect. I just didn't think it would look like this
full preterists say we are living in the kingdom. I didn't think that would look like this either
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