I find it very interesting that every time a specific Bible verse does damage to a false doctrine, like James 2:24 destroys the doctrine of “faith only” and Mark 16:16 plainly puts baptism BEFORE salvation, then the passage itself and its credibility comes under attack. I guess the idea is, if you can’t refute what it says then just say it’s not inspired and shouldn’t be there.
You need to stop confusing salvation through faith in Christ "alone" (Ephesians 2:8,9) with "faith only" -
empty profession of faith/dead faith that remains "alone" - barren of works. (James 2:14) Man is saved through faith and not by works (Ephesians 2:8,9; Titus 3:5; 2 Timothy 1:9); yet genuine faith is vindicated, substantiated, evidenced by works (James 2:14-24). *
Christ saves us through faith based on the merits of His finished work of redemption "alone" and not based on the merits of our works.* It is through faith "in Christ alone" (and not by the merits of our works) that we are justified on account of Christ (Romans 3:24; 5:1; 5:9); yet the faith that justifies is never alone (solitary, unfruitful, barren) if it is genuine (James 2:14-24). *Perfect Harmony*
You need to keep in mind that James is discussing the
evidence of faith (
says-claims to have faith but has no works/I will show you my faith by my works - James 2:14-18) and
not the initial act of being accounted as righteous with God (Romans 4:2-3).
Mark 16:16 - He who believes and is baptized will be saved
(general cases without making a qualification for the unusual case of someone who believes but is not baptized) but he who
does not believe will be condemned. The omission of baptized with "does not believe" shows that Jesus does not make baptism absolutely essential to salvation. Condemnation rests on unbelief, not on a lack of baptism. So salvation rests on belief. *NOWHERE does the Bible say "baptized or condemned." If he who believes will be saved then he who believes and is baptized will be saved as well. Yet who did Jesus say will be condemned in Mark 16:16? Those who don't believe or those who have not been baptized?
So where is baptism placed before salvation in 3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26?
If water baptism is absolutely required for salvation, then why did Jesus not mention it in those verses? What is the ONE requirement that Jesus mentions 9 different times in each of these complete statements?
BELIEVES. *What happened to baptism? *Hermeneutics. So much for your theory.
*John 3:18 - He who
believes in Him is not condemned; but he who (is not water baptized? - NO)
does not believe is condemned already, because he has not (been water baptized? - NO)
because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.