I thought you didn’t speak in tongues?![]()
i spent a really long time studying this language lol; if it looks spontaneous then i learned it well!
I thought you didn’t speak in tongues?![]()
let's look at an application:
You, Father, are in Me, and I in You(John 17:21)what the Lord of lords says here can be written:
{the Father} ∈ {the Son} and {the Son} ∈ {the Father}
if this is saying all of the Father is in the Son and all of the Son is in the Father, then it is expressing each mutually contained in the other:
→ the Son = the Father
if however it is only saying that some elements are contained, then it isn't enough to prove equivalence.
((recall that our proof assumed the entire sets was contained in the other))
is that the case? let's see:
Colossians 1:19 - the fullness of God dwells bodily in Jesus Christ
all of the Father is in the Son, so the Father is completely contained in the Son
John 14:9 - who has seen Jesus Christ has seen the Father
all of the Son is in the Father, so the Son is completely contained in the Son
it is the case: Christ is God
@limmuwd can you similarly show that you, being a believer, are God?
Never said I was!
What I often am attacked for is sharing on the relationship between Jesus and God. So I point out passages that support what God has given me to teach.
And regarding what our Lord Jesus prayed in John 17... some will grasp it's implications; others will not.
No, we will never be "God"; but the "Elect" are "Christ." Jesus is the Head and King, but those "united" to Him (as He is united to God), will be "One with Him, as He is One with His Father."
And you realize of course that John 10:30, taken with John 17:21 would mean that these disciples are also "God", since they are "one with Christ as He is One with the Father."
And Truthfully... (and here come the attacks of blasphemy as they came to Jesus!)... in that Day, the overcoming Elect will be able to say, along with the Son... "I AM."
"One with Him, as He is One with His Father."
but the "Elect" are "Christ."
does it say this? where does it say this?
that's not what John 17:21 says.
that they all may be one, as Thou Father art in Me, and I in Thee; that they also in Us may be one, that the world may believe that Thou didst send Me.(Young's Literal Translation)that says "in us they all be one"
one in Him, not with Him. that they be one. how important is the distinction?
important enough for us not to blaspheme!
this is tangent to where we are:
whoever is united with the Lord is one with Him in spirit. (1 Corinthians 6:17)but this isn't totality of equivalence; it's one with Him in spirit.
humans are not monistic in substance: we have spirit, soul, and also body.
what about the parts of us that are not spirit? can we find that in scripture?
this all gets extremely complicated very quickly!
which we should expect, seeing that we're now starting to talk about 'knowing the love of Christ which surpasses knowledge' -- knowing what is impossible to know!
we need to know also how what He is saying is so that the world may believe He was sent by God.
The fact still remains that Jesus did not die for all mankind.
He died for all that believed. He tasted death for everyone that believed. Also, John 3:16 - He so loved the world of believers. The only way the natural man could make a choice to accept the things of the Spirit is explained in Eph 2:5, God quickens him when he was yet spiritually dead in sins. You said it yourself, "He only bore the sin of many" which were only those who were quickened.No @ForestGreenCook it does not.
2 Corinthians 5:15
He died for all, that those who live should live no longer for themselves, but for Him who died for them and rose again.
Hebrews 2:9
we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels, for the suffering of death crowned with glory and honor, that He, by the grace of God, might taste death for everyone.
There's two witnesses for you. There are more but that establishes the truth.
He died for all but 'only' bore the sins of many
It is, as you yourself said: all scripture must harmonize![]()
He died for all that believed. He tasted death for everyone that believed.
The only way the natural man could make a choice to accept the things of the Spirit is explained in Eph 2:5, God quickens him when he was yet spiritually dead in sins. You said it yourself, "He only bore the sin of many" which were only those who were quickened.
you had said that if John 17 implies an equivalence relationship between the Father and the Son, then it also implies one between the believer and God:
i can give a proof from John 17 that Christ is God. ((i just did)). i do not know how to prove from John 17 that i am God. ((or that the disciples are God))
i think i can show that the proof that Christ is God in John 17 cannot be used to prove that i am God -- as you had implied it could ((unless there is a different proof in John 17 you care to share?)) -- but i need to find the back of an envelope to hash it out, probably tomorrow if it seems necessary to go through. i'm off to bed.
what do you mean that you will say "I AM" on that day?
please express your answer in terms of quantum physics!
or not. w/e
How many were forgiven of their sins by Jesus's death on the cross?the scripture says "He died for all"
it literally says that, verbatim. i can't deny it.
yes!
many < all
He died for all.
He bore the sins of many.
not every name is in the book of life, but all will rise and stand before Him
How many were forgiven of their sins by Jesus's death on the cross?
How do you know that you are among that few?
Even devils believe.
All those whose sins He bore, taking them away and casting them in the depths of the sea. All who believe, which no man can number
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So Jesus did not bear the sins of all mankind, he just bore the sins of those who believe. Is that how you believe it?All those whose sins He bore, taking them away and casting them in the depths of the sea. All who believe, which no man can number
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So Jesus did not bear the sins of all mankind, he just bore the sins of those who believe. Is that how you believe it?
Many believe a false Gospel.The devils are not subject to salvation. Those who do believe as a anchor to the salvation of their soul are subject to the gospel .
We have the witness in these bodies of death but would never say the power is of us. If any man has not the witness of the Spirit of Christ in them then they do not belong to Him.
2 Corinthians 4:7 But we have this treasure in earthen vessels, that the excellency of the power may be of God, and not of us
I believe that you are stretching the scriptures to imply that Jesus died for some, but did not take away their sins. The other scriptures will not harmonize with that line of thinking.Yes, I think there is a difference between dying for a man and bearing his sin.
It's the only way I know how to reconcile these things:
Scripture says He died for all
Scripture says not all are saved
Scripture says He bore the sins of many
I reckon, if He took away someone's sin that person cannot be condemned. But He could die for someone without taking away their sin - and they would still be liable to condemnation.
So it's the elect whose sins He bore - those who believe on Him, who are His sheep. But even though He died also for thw goats, because they do not believe, they will die in their sins - He does not bear those sins they die in; the goats are not raised with Him
There is no forgiveness without the shedding of blood, correct? Jesus shed His blood, correct? If so, are we forgiven when we believe in His death and resurrection?
I believe that you are stretching the scriptures to imply that Jesus died for some, but did not take away their sins. The other scriptures will not harmonize with that line of thinking.