What is your BEST PROOF for a pre-trib Rapture?

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presidente

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There is a Biblical reason to believe the saints will have a 'U-Turn'. Paul says the saints will be resurrected and caught up to meet the Lord in the air, but Revelation shows resurrected ones ruling and reigning with Christ 1000 years. Pre-trib just makes the U-Turn take seven years.

Where is their evidence for Christ making a U-Turn, showing up in the sky, then going back to heaven?
 

GaryA

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I have a question for you...

To my knowledge, I don't think there is a pre-tribber anywhere that doesn't believe that the passage you quote above is specifically referring to an 'eternal' home with Christ.

So - why do you insist on believing that you will only live in "your mansion" for seven years?

The Bible tells us that we will reign with Christ for 1000 years on earth - followed by eternity with Christ after the Judgment and the New Heaven and Earth are created.

No one (human) will live in [the third] heaven for eternity...

I suggest to you that "your mansion" that is being prepared for you is in the New Jerusalem city.

It may be in [the third] heaven now - but, it's going to be on the New Earth for eternity.

"Food for thought..."
I'm still curious about what answer pretribbers have for this question...

Are you going to "move in" to your mansion only to have to "move out" seven years later?
 

TheDivineWatermark

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If the day of the Lord isn't going to take place until the apostasy and the man of sin is revealed, that is not evidence for a pre-trib rapture or multiple parousia's.
--V.3 "that day [from v.2, NOT the event from v.1] will NOT be present if not shall have come THE DEPARTURE *FIRST* [the noun-event from v.1] and [distinctly] the man of sin be revealed..."


So the DEPICTION of this looks like the following:

[X='you are here'...THEN "first vertical line is 'arrow UP' [='THE Departure *FIRST*']"..<then DOTL will be in existence on the earth w/its 'man of sin' (SEAL #1) and 'judgments' unfolding>... THEN "second vertical line is Jesus' "RETURN" to the earth ('arrow down') FOR the earthly MK age (note: the DOTL continues clear throughout the MK age also [including both "DARK/IN THE NIGHT" (red) as well as the FULL LIGHT OF DAY (purple)])]

-----X---l_<DOTL>__________l______________<1000y>_______________>

V.3 - "that day [the DOTL time period] will not be present, if not shall have come THE Departure FIRST, and [distinctly] the man of sin be revealed..."

(and he is revealed at the START of the 7-yrs [2Th2:9a/8a], not at its MIDDLE [2Th2:4 (not depicted in this illustration)], nor at its END [2Th2:8b])




[the "24 elders" (representing "the Church which is His body") are shown to be in heaven BEFORE the opening of SEAL #1 when Jesus will "STAND to JUDGE" [Isa3:13, Rev5:6, etc]... and they SAY in Rev5:9 "us/we"--"we shall reign on the earth"... just like Rev1:5-6 had said "us"--they are wearing "stephanos/crowns" and Paul had been told he would receive a "stephanos/crown" IN THAT DAY (note: the DOTL [earthly] and the Day of Christ/-our Lord Jesus Christ run CONCURRENTLY, but in distinct LOCATIONS, and with distinct PURPOSES)]
 

TheDivineWatermark

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From the article in Post #803 (which I've read before), the article writer quotes another author, saying,

"He argues, “Although many assume that those taken in Matt 24:40-41 and Luke 17:34-35 are taken to be with Jesus and those left behind are left for judgment, this interpretation should be rejected.” "

As a pre-tribber, I too reject such an interpretation ^ (and I think I've said so in this very thread, somewhere).

Both Matthew 24:40-41 and Luke 17:34-35 are in the CONTEXT of [the events surrounding] His Second Coming to the earth (NOT of our Rapture).

And JUST LIKE in NOAH's day, the ones "taken" are "taken away in judgment" and the ones "left" are "left to populate the earth in their mortal bodies" (and I had provided the parallels shown between Daniel 2:35 and Genesis 9:1 "[actively] FILL/FILLED the [whole] earth"). I also had provided the "time period" shown in Lk18:8 "AVENGE in quickness [noun]" parallel to the same time-frame-phrase in Rev1:1/22:6 "things which must come to pass IN QUICKNESS [NOUN]" [/1:19c/4:1 (7:3) related--all speaking of the "FUTURE" aspects of the Book; i.e . the 7-yr trib], etc)
 

Hevosmies

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[and... do you believe "David's throne" is located IN HEAVEN, as the "amill-teachings" have it??]
Well right now David's throne aint on earth, thats what we DO KNOW.

I believe the throne of David WILL BE on earth and Jesus WILL BE on it, in the future. But obviously FOR NOW Jesus is in heaven.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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Well right now David's throne aint on earth, thats what we DO KNOW.

I believe the throne of David WILL BE on earth and Jesus WILL BE on it, in the future. But obviously FOR NOW Jesus is in heaven.

Then we fairly agree here (whereas the amill-teachings have Him sitting on "the throne of David" NOW *IN HEAVEN* according to them--due to their misunderstanding of what Acts 3 is conveying [as well as their disregard for "chronology" issues, as I've said]).

I've mentioned a few times: the word "King" is only used TWO TIMES in all of the epistles, and BOTH of them are "FUTURE"... [ex: "Which IN HIS TIMES He SHALL SHEW [openly manifest], Who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords" (a phrase found only in Rev19:16, and in the reverse order in 17:14)
 

presidente

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--V.3 "that day [from v.2, NOT the event from v.1] will NOT be present if not shall have come THE DEPARTURE *FIRST* [the noun-event from v.1] and [distinctly] the man of sin be revealed..."
I suspect you may be cutting and pasting. The caps, brackets, bolds, etc. make your reasoning hard to follow. Using phrases instead of 'v.1' make the argument easier to follow. I find myself having to go through the verses and reconstructing which one is which verse in my head. Just sayin.

Why should I believe 'the departure' refers to the rapture instead of what Paul calls 'the departure' elsewhere-- some departing from the faith? I see no reason to jump on the pre-trib train of circular reasoning unless there is solid evidence. Where is the evidence for either a 7-year second coming or two second comings (pariousia's)? In this very chapter, the man of sin is destroyed at the brightness of his coming in verse 8.

II Thes.

8 And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming:
9 Even him, whose coming is after the working of Satan with all power and signs and lying wonders

Why would that be a different coming/parousia, than the one in verse 1

1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,

Notice the gathering here associated with the Lord's parousia, as it is at the end of the tribulation in Matthew 24. He mentions the parousia first, then the gathering, which we both take to refer to the rapture.

Compare this to Paul's previous letter, I Thessalonians, Paul had written to them about events that occurred at the coming of the Lord, as we read in chapter 4.

15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.
16 For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:
17 Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.

Paul uses a definite article, 'the coming' of the Lord, not 'a coming of the Lord. τὴν παρουσίαν

Why would Paul use the same words, teach on the same subjects, but be using the words with different definitions just to fit the pretrib theory which was developed in the 1800's? Why should I believe that without some actual evidence from scripture of pretrib that does not consist of 'spinning' a passage so it could possibly fit with pre-trib as you are doing here?

Why would I think that the 'departing', defection or apostasy Paul writes of here refers to the rapture. Greek speakers relatively early on. Chrysostom in his Homily 3 on the book associated the departure with the deceptions of the Antichrist. Matthew 24 warns of the love of many growing cold, deception from false prophets and false Christs.

Why would the Greek word which you translate 'departure' be different from how Paul used it elsewhere in his writings?

I Timothy 4:1
Now the Spirit speaketh expressly, that in the latter times some shall depart from the faith, giving heed to seducing spirits, and doctrines of devils;

Why should I turn the interpretation of Paul's writings on it's ear to accomodate pre-trib. "Here parousia means this. There parousia has a different definition and means that. Here the departure is a bad thing. There it is the rapture." That's spinning interpretations of passages to fit a preconceived notion. It is called eisegesis, not exegesis.


So the DEPICTION of this looks like the following:

[X='you are here'...THEN "first vertical line is 'arrow UP' [='THE Departure *FIRST*']"..<then DOTL will be in existence on the earth w/its 'man of sin' (SEAL #1) and 'judgments' unfolding>... THEN "second vertical line is Jesus' "RETURN" to the earth ('arrow down') FOR the earthly MK age (note: the DOTL continues clear throughout the MK age also [including both "DARK/IN THE NIGHT" (red) as well as the FULL LIGHT OF DAY (purple)])]

-----X---l_<DOTL>__________l______________<1000y>_______________>

V.3 - "that day [the DOTL time period] will not be present, if not shall have come THE Departure FIRST, and [distinctly] the man of sin be revealed..."

(and he is revealed at the START of the 7-yrs [2Th2:9a/8a], not at its MIDDLE [2Th2:4 (not depicted in this illustration)], nor at its END [2Th2:8b])
Why don't you re-write this stuff in plain English without the distracting brackets, colors, etc.?

Chapter 1 refers to 'that day'-- the day when Jesus comes back and executes wrath on them that believe not. Why wouldn't that be the same 'day of the Lord' in the next chapter. If you argue that 'the day of the Lord' can take more than 24 hours...okay... but that is not reason to think that the coming of Christ, the very event the chapter is discussing is excluded from the day of the Lord.

[the "24 elders" (representing "the Church which is His body") are shown to be in heaven BEFORE the opening of SEAL #1 when Jesus will "STAND to JUDGE" [Isa3:13, Rev5:6, etc]... and they SAY in Rev5:9 "us/we"--"we shall reign on the earth"... just like Rev1:5-6 had said "us"--they are wearing "stephanos/crowns" and Paul had been told he would receive a "stephanos/crown" IN THAT DAY (note: the DOTL [earthly] and the Day of Christ/-our Lord Jesus Christ run CONCURRENTLY, but in distinct LOCATIONS, and with distinct PURPOSES)]
John saw the elders in heaven way back when... whenever Revelation was written. It might have been in the 90's AD. Unless you are arguing that the rapture happened before that, I don't see how this proves much along the lines of the timing of the rapture. From Paul's writings, we can see that it happens at the parousia, and that that wicked will be destroyed at the brightness of His parousia.

If He does not come here, how is that a parousia?
 
Dec 14, 2019
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Sure you can bro! What I personally believe is that I am being thrown by every wind of doctrine when it comes to eschatology. Im DEEP ROOTED when it comes to other things, but eschatology is like the odd man out for me. Everytime I think I gots this figured out I find something else and BAM there goes that.

I have heard many debates, read all the articles the books the this and that. And one thing that I see is that ALL eschatological positions got some MAJOR problems with them, by MAJOR i mean they have to CHANGE what verses mean, or water down the verses to not mean what they plainly say.

I can demonstrate this quickly for ALL common views:

Dispensational premillennialism - You have to imagine that 1 Thess 4:15 is a DIFFERENT COMING than the second coming that everyone was waiting for, EVEN THOUGH its clear when compared to with rest of Scripture that there is only one time Jesus is coming again (Acts 1:11, Acts 3:21) Its also clear that even in the midst of the vials in Revelation 16:15 Jesus is still saying "I am COMING" so He still has not COME! Paul says Christians get rest at the same time as Jesus returns in flaming fire, so clearly not a rapture separate coming: 2 Thessalonians 1:7-9. To their credit: This view is the best of both worlds in the sense that it accounts for the verses that seem to say Jesus could come at any moment, while also taking seriously the many signs preceding the Lord's return concluding yeah these cant be the same event, they are usually taking scripture very seriously and literally (except for interpreting revelation 4:1 :D) and a big bonus: the MOST righteous living, Spirit filled, on fire for God Christians I know are in this camp. My church also teaches this. All my favorite preachers teach this.

Historical premillennialism - You have the problem who populates the millennium? 2 Thessalonians 1:7-9 proves to be a stumbling stone here too, because all the saved are given rest, glorified bodies, resurrected, and the lost are destroyed, leaving no one left in the flesh the populate the millennium. How do they get around it? They go to Zechariah 14, say some people are left, or try to otherwise twist 2 Thessalonians 1:7-9 to say only SOME lost are destroyed, those who WILLINGLY dont know Him and so on. The other problem is, the Rapture seems largely meaningless because Jesus is coming to this very same earth, so why do a U-turn to begin with. To their credit: I believe this view is the one you end up with when just reading the entire book of Revelation and/or bible from cover to cover, which is why it was the most popular view in the early early early church!

Amillennialism - You have to completely twist and turn Revelation 20 and jump all over the Bible to make the claim that satan is bound already. First resurrection is spiritual, yet rest of the dead also live after the millennium, and thats a physical resurrection. Well that means all the saved are part of it too! Making the first spiritual resurrection, being born again spiritually kind of POINTLESS. They also have to ignore Revelation 19 and Revelation 20 are clearly in chronological order, beast and false prophet taken out first, satan then bound, released and then thrown into the lake of fire where the beast and the false prophet ARE (already ARE, cause they was thrown in there in Revelation 19)! To their credit: This view fits the New Testament the best OUTSIDE OF the book of Revelation.


Basically as you can see, MAYBE im just nitpicking, but IMO: ALL the views have holes in em. Which is why we got many VIEWS to begin with! SORRY if I went too long hopefuly SOMEONE has enough patience to read thru my drivel!
Who is going to populate the earth in the millennium? Christians who have endured the tribulation and saints whose bodies will be resurrected at His second coming which I believe is at the end of the trib. Christians who remain, glorified bodies in a twinkling of an eye, caught up to meet Jesus in the air...like a welcoming delegation for the return of the King of kings and Lord of lords to at last rule and reign upon the earth. He will rule the nations with a rod of iron...these I believe are the remnant of unbelievers because God does not wholly destroy every one of them.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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Using phrases instead of 'v.1' make the argument easier to follow. I find myself having to go through the verses and reconstructing which one is which verse in my head. Just sayin.
I do it purposely BECAUSE of the fact that people have the WRONG phrase in their heads (meaning, making a WRONG connection in these places), where I am bringing in the corrective (by pointing out which one connects with which other one--which is where the problem stems from).

When I DON'T do it, people continue on spelling out their INCORRECT connections.


Plainly: the Subject being spoken of in verse 1 is not identical to the Subject being spoken of in verse 2 (which people very commonly, but wrongly, EQUATE).

Placing each of these TWO DISTINCT items [Subjects] into their CORRECT "connecting-points" in verse 3, is key (but widely missed by many).
 

TooFastTurtle

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I cannot remember who it was that said he does not participate in debates about these things on the internet because no one ever changes their minds.

It has now been 41 pages of discussion, has anyone changed their mind? If not, perhaps that person was correct. Whoever you were, if you are reading this please respond to me, I want to know who it was.
 

presidente

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I do it purposely BECAUSE of the fact that people have the WRONG phrase in their heads (meaning, making a WRONG connection in these places), where I am bringing in the corrective (by pointing out which one connects with which other one--which is where the problem stems from).

When I DON'T do it, people continue on spelling out their INCORRECT connections.
quotes are clearer so people can remember long. Pretrib rap is based on ASSUMING those connections you argue for and that meanings of terms in the chapter and elsewhere change between verses to accommodate pretrib.


Plainly: the [/QUOTE]
 

TheDivineWatermark

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quotes are clearer so people can remember long. Pretrib rap is based on ASSUMING those connections you argue for and that meanings of terms in the chapter and elsewhere change between verses to accommodate pretrib.
Verse 2 - "for you not quickly to be shaken in mind, nor to be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as if by us, as that the day of the Lord is present [PERFECT indicative]."

Verse 2's Subject ^ is not the "noun-event" spoken of in the previous verse (v.1--"the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and our 'episynagoges' UNTO HIM"--our Rapture event).


So, seeing as they are distinct Subjects (and Paul is telling how the one fits in relation, time-wise, to the other), WHAT is the thing that he is calling "[purporting that] THE DAY OF THE LORD *IS PRESENT*" (that others were saying to them, or at least the risk was there of ppl trying to convince them of this).

WHAT IS IT? [the saying of] "the day of the Lord IS PRESENT [PERFECT indicative]" (what would someone have MEANT by telling them this phrase??)
 

TheDivineWatermark

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[…] because no one ever changes their minds.

It has now been 41 pages of discussion, has anyone changed their mind? If not, perhaps that person was correct. Whoever you were, if you are reading this please respond to me, I want to know who it was.
Back in the olden days of Internet discussions, I was aware of quite a number of people who were convinced (to another viewpoint, the correct one :D ) by means of the discussions.

I've not seen that happen (that I am aware of) very much at all, in recent years (the last few years, it seems).
 

TooFastTurtle

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Back in the olden days of Internet discussions, I was aware of quite a number of people who were convinced (to another viewpoint, the correct one :D ) by means of the discussions.

I've not seen that happen (that I am aware of) very much at all, in recent years (the last few years, it seems).
Perhaps it is about everyone being persuaded in their own minds?

Often times it is also that people in teaching positions cannot take back what they taught or they would lose credibility.
 

presidente

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Verse 2 - "for you not quickly to be shaken in mind, nor to be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as if by us, as that the day of the Lord is present [PERFECT indicative]."

Verse 2's Subject ^ is not the "noun-event" spoken of in the previous verse (v.1--"the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and our 'episynagoges' UNTO HIM"--our Rapture event).


So, seeing as they are distinct Subjects (and Paul is telling how the one fits in relation, time-wise, to the other), WHAT is the thing that he is calling "[purporting that] THE DAY OF THE LORD *IS PRESENT*" (that others were saying to them, or at least the risk was there of ppl trying to convince them of this).

WHAT IS IT? [the saying of] "the day of the Lord IS PRESENT [PERFECT indicative]" (what would someone have MEANT by telling them this phrase??)
Let's look at the context

II Thessalonians 1
9 Who shall be punished with everlasting destruction from the presence of the Lord, and from the glory of his power;

10 When he shall come to be glorified in his saints, and to be admired in all them that believe (because our testimony among you was believed) in that day.

...
...

II Thessalonians 2:1-2
1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,

2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.

3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;

Why would the day of Christ (or the day of the Lord) in this context refer to a different day than that described in 1:10? Why Paul frame the context as being about the coming of the Lord in verse 1 if that is not something that happens in the day of Christ/day of the Lord referenced in verse 2?

I Thessalonians 4:15 already sets the rapture at the coming (parousia) of the Lord, so why would Paul be talking about multiple comings of the Lord in these letters? I see no reason to accept the pre-trib assumptions you hold to to try to stretch this passage into the pretrib mold.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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Let's look at the context
[…]
Why would the day of Christ (or the day of the Lord) in this context refer to a different day than that described in 1:10?
It's not "different".

I've stated (over and over) that "wherever the phrases 'the DOTL' and 'IN THAT DAY' are used IN PROXIMITY [in the same CONTEXTS], that they are referring to 'THE SAME TIME PERIOD'; and in this is the case with THIS context of chpts 1 & 2."

I've said that ^ again and again, throughout these posts I've made.

To that point, I've said that 2Th1:10b and 2Th2:10-12 are giving the CONTRAST between what people [who will exist in/during the trib years FOLLOWING our Rapture] will come to "believe" at that time;

--1) some will be sent [via God doing the sending of] the strong DELUSION that they should believe the LIE/the FALSE/the pseudei (2Th2:10-12) IN THE TRIB;

--2) whereas the others will come to believe 'the-testimony-of-us-to-you' (2Th1:10b) also IN THE TRIB [this one is not talking about them and us (in the NOW), but those (future-ly) IN THE TRIB/"IN THAT DAY"/in "the DOTL [time period]" (just like the other part/other ppl); IOW, the TRUTH of what HAS JUST HAPPENED (from THEIR perspective in time/setting--IN THE TRIB); so...

...the text says (after speaking of the vengeance [time-period] in v.8), in v.10 "when He shall come TO BE GLORIFIED IN His saints, and to be marveled at in all those having believed [during the time-period JUST MENTIONED; and not merely a 24-hr day], because 'the-testimony-of-us-to-you' was believed IN THAT DAY [the same time-period just mentioned--meaning, in the SAME TIME-PERIOD as "the Day of the Lord," just as these two phrases are used alongside each other in OT prophecies/passages to be speaking of the SAME TIME-PERIOD--I believe it is a MISTAKE to view this passage/verse to be speaking of the Thessalonians' own past experience of "believing" (of course, they DID, but this passage is not speaking of that, per the particular way it is worded, and per the overall context, and per this CONTRAST being set at either end of this entire bracketed section, so to speak [some have suggested something like a chiastic structure, or whatever], and per the way these have been used together in the OT [prophetic-scriptures] precedent [for sure, 2Th2:10-12 is a prophetic word about WILL happen DURING the trib, not presently!], etc)]


Hope this helps you see my perspective (and my apologies for the brackets and parentheses and the bold and the caps--maybe they will help someone out there to "not inadvertently overlook the point I'm endeavoring to emphasize by my using these" :D )
 

presidente

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It's not "different".

I've stated (over and over) that "wherever the phrases 'the DOTL' and 'IN THAT DAY' are used IN PROXIMITY [in the same CONTEXTS], that they are referring to 'THE SAME TIME PERIOD'; and in this is the case with THIS context of chpts 1 & 2."

I've said that ^ again and again, throughout these posts I've made.
Maybe you should draw a conclusion here for me. Are you saying that the day described in II Thessalonians 1, where Jesus returns, giving the church rest and executing judgment on them that believe not is the day of the Lord? If that is the case, why would you object to II Thessalonians 1:1 referring to the day of the Lord?

To that point, I've said that 2Th1:10b and 2Th2:10-12 are giving the CONTRAST between what people [who will exist in/during the trib years FOLLOWING our Rapture] will come to "believe" at that time;
I don't remember the terminology for it, but there is a belief held by futurist scholars, including pre-tribbers, that some of these passages refer to 'you' in such a way that refers to the church at that time up through the time when the eschatalogical events happen, because they are imminent and we do not know when they will occur.
--1) some will be sent [via God doing the sending of] the strong DELUSION that they should believe the LIE/the FALSE/the pseudei (2Th2:10-12) IN THE TRIB;

--2) whereas the others will come to believe 'the-testimony-of-us-to-you' (2Th1:10b) also IN THE TRIB [this one is not talking about them and us (in the NOW), but those (future-ly) IN THE TRIB/"IN THAT DAY"/in "the DOTL [time period]" (just like the other part/other ppl); IOW, the TRUTH of what HAS JUST HAPPENED (from THEIR perspective in time/setting--IN THE TRIB); so...
Maybe there is some contrast, but Paul is addressing his reader's faith and seems to unknowingly be making statements that apply to Christians in the future since he did not know the day nor the hour either.

...the text says (after speaking of the vengeance [time-period] in v.8), in v.10 "when He shall come TO BE GLORIFIED IN His saints, and to be marveled at in all those having believed [during the time-period JUST MENTIONED; and not merely a 24-hr day], because 'the-testimony-of-us-to-you' was believed IN THAT DAY


These translators disagree as seen by their use of parentheses.

10 When he shall come to be glorified in his saints, and to be admired in all them that believe (because our testimony among you was believed) in that day.

I see this as referring to the day when He shall come to be glorified in the saints and to be admired by all them that believe. Not 'believed in that day.' That's ripping it out of context. For what it is worth, the word translated 'believed' is in the aorist in that verse.
Hope this helps you see my perspective (and my apologies for the brackets and parentheses and the bold and the caps--maybe they will help someone out there to "not inadvertently overlook the point I'm endeavoring to emphasize by my using these" :D )
IMO, the difficulty getting through the font clutter overwhelms any help the emphasis gives. But that's m perspective.
 

TheDivineWatermark

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Maybe you should draw a conclusion here for me. Are you saying that the day described in II Thessalonians 1, where Jesus returns, giving the church rest and executing judgment on them that believe not is the day of the Lord?
Here [if it's true you've at least been attempting to grasp my point, even if you continue to disagree with it], you are showing evidence that you have not grasped my words where I've said (repeatedly) that "the Day of the Lord" is NOT "a singular 24-hr day"... (it is an earthly time-period of MUCH, MUCH, MUCH DURATION... do you recall my point saying that?)

Yes it's "the DOTL"; no it is not "a singular 24-hr day" merely.

If that is the case, why would you object to II Thessalonians 1:1 referring to the day of the Lord?
Do you mean 2Th2:1, by chance?

If you do mean 2Th2:1, I've mentioned that that is speaking of "our Rapture" EVENT that takes place pretty much in a very short, miniscule point in time. That is the noun-event of v.1 (and the location of it is "IN THE AIR").

As you can see from my earlier paragraph at the top of this post, "the Day of the Lord" is not "described" like that ^ . ;)

So, once we can at least get on the same page of "understanding" (not saying you must agree with me), then we can further investigate what I also had put about the "VENGEANCE," which is that it does not take place merely on "a singular 24-hr day"... so I am not saying "that day" (the wording here) is "a 24-hr day" as you seem to be suggesting I've said. :)

[I'm so tempted to bold the last two "not" words in my last sentence, so that you are sure not to miss it :D ]