Water baptism is what we're talking about.
The baptism that Jesus sent his disciples to do was water baptism. That's the kind Peter was telling them to submit to for remission of sins. (Physical baptism. Born of water.)
In regards to the word "water" in John 3:5, there are those who would argue that the natural sense of the passage parallels "water" with being born out of a mother’s womb (verse 4) and with "flesh" (verse 6). Simply stated in that case, Jesus told Nicodemus that in order to see the kingdom of God two births are necessary. The first is a physical, literal, "flesh" birth (which is, of course, accompanied by amniotic "water") and the second is Spirit.
There are also those who would argue that Jesus mentions "living water" in John 4:10, 14; 7:37-39 and in John 7:38-39, we read - "He who
believes in Me, as the Scripture has said,
out of his heart will flow rivers of living water. But this He spoke
concerning the Spirit. *The Holy Spirit is the
source of living water and spiritual cleansing. If "water" is arbitrarily defined as baptism, then we could just as justifiably say, "Out of his heart will flow rivers of living baptism" in John 7:38. If this sounds ridiculous, it is no more so than the idea that water baptism is the source or the means of becoming born again.
Yet there are still others who would argue that "water" is used in the Bible as an
emblem of the Word of God, and in such uses it is associated with
cleansing or washing. (John 15:3; Ephesians 5:26) When we are born again, the Holy Spirit begets new life, Divine life, so that we are said to become "partakers of the divine nature" (2 Peter 1:4). The
new birth is brought to pass through "incorruptible seed, by the
Word of God, which lives and abides forever" (I Peter 1:23), but the Holy Spirit is the Agent who accomplishes the miracle of regeneration. So to automatically read "baptism" into John 3:5 simply because it mentions "water" is unwarranted
Water baptism is directly tied to remission of sins.
In Matthew 3:11, we read - "I baptize you with water
for repentance.. (NASB) Now was this baptism for "in order to obtain" repentance? (which makes no sense at all) or was this baptism for "in regards to/on the basis of" repentance? The answer is obvious. Water baptism does not obtain repentance or the remission of sins, but is done "in regards to/on the basis of" remission of sins received upon repentance.
Luke 24:47 - and that
repentance and remission of sins should be preached in His name to all nations, beginning at Jerusalem. *What happened to baptism?
Acts 3:19 -
Repent therefore and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, so that times of refreshing may come from the presence of the Lord. *What happened to baptism?
Acts 5:31 - Him God has exalted to His right hand to be Prince and Savior, to give
repentance to Israel and forgiveness of sins. *What happened to baptism?
Acts 11:17 - If therefore God gave them the same gift as He gave us
when we believed on the Lord Jesus Christ, who was I that I could withstand God?" 18 When they heard these things they became silent; and they glorified God, saying, "Then God has also granted to the Gentiles
repentance unto life." *This was prior to receiving water baptism (Acts 10:43-47).
*So once again, the only logical conclusion
when properly harmonizing scripture with scripture is that faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; 16:31; 26:18). *Perfect Harmony*
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