Some claim that the word "foreknowledge", used in Romans 8:28-30, refers to events, rather than persons. In their view, God simply "foreknows" the persons' faith decision, and bases his election on this foreknowledge of their decision.
Romans 8:28-30 28 And we know that for those who love God all things work together for good, for those who are called according to his purpose. 29 For those whom he foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son, in order that he might be the firstborn among many brothers. 30 And those whom he predestined he also called, and those whom he called he also justified, and those whom he justified he also glorified.
(ESV Strong's)
Notice, though, that the Scripture says that God foreknew people, not events ("those whom he foreknew"). Therefore, their view that foreknowledge means simple advanced knowledge of their faith decision is not correct. The sentence does not describe a decision that was foreknown, but a person who was foreknown.
God certainly knows all events in advance, but this is not the sense in which which this verse is using "foreknowledge".
God foreknows people, in the context of this verse.
I propose that foreknowledge, in this context, implies an intimate, distinguishing love that God has for the elect individual, which is different than the love he has for the non-elect. It is not describing simple foreknowledge of an event.
As an example, a man in a healthy marital relationship loves his wife in a distinct manner than he loves other women.
God loves the elect, in advance of the elect knowing Him, in a distinguishing manner, prior to salvation. In this manner, God foreknows all the elect.
"Knowledge" in Scripture often refers to relationship knowledge. For instance, the intimate sex act is referred to repetitively in Scripture as "knowing". Adam knew his wife Eve, and children were a result of this intimate knowledge. In the same manner, God loves with a distinguishing love those who are elect. We should not be surprised by this usage in the context of election.
Contextually, Paul uses this concept of foreknowledge in the next three chapters. Therefore, context indicates that this view is correct.
For example, this section teaches that before Jacob and Esau were born, God "hated" Esau and "loved" Jacob. So, before either knew Him, they had a relationship, with God, defined by God hating Esau and loving Jacob. It was not about their merits, as the verses indicate, but solely based on God's love for Jacob prior to his existence. He "fore-loved" Jacob and "fore-hated" Esau before either were born.
Romans 9:11-13 11 though they were not yet born and had done nothing either good or bad—in order that God's purpose of election might continue, not because of works but because of him who calls— 12 she was told, “The older will serve the younger.” 13 As it is written, “Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated.” (ESV Strong's)
He also discusses how the nation of Israel was "foreknown" by God and has not been forsaken, in the same context:
Romans 11:2 2 God has not rejected his people whom he foreknew. Do you not know what the Scripture says of Elijah, how he appeals to God against Israel? (ESV Strong's)
He is not talking about simple foreknowledge of a decision, but he is talking about foreknowledge of persons. God has a special affection for Israel, which was not merited by their behavior, as they rejected Him.
The same is true concerning Jeremiah:
Jeremiah 1:5 “Before I formed you in the womb I knew you, and before you were born I consecrated you; I appointed you a prophet to the nations.”
(ESV Strong's)
God knows his elect before they are born, and he loves them with a distinguishing love. Their relationship is defined by him prior to their existence. The same is true of the elect.
Therefore biblical foreknowledge, in the context of election, is better translated "fore-loving".
As I indicated, pronouns indicate the personal nature of this foreknowing. It is not a matter of foreknowing events, but foreknowing people.
And he foreknows (foreloves) people, as the pronouns used in this section indicate ("whom he foreknew"). It does not use the phrase "what he foreknew", which would be appropriate if he simply foreknew the events.
Make no mistake. He does know the events of the future in detail. In fact, he shapes history. But this is not biblical foreknowledge in the context of salvation.
This verse describes this event-based type of "foreknowledge":
Isaiah 46:9-10 9 remember the former things of old; for I am God, and there is no other; I am God, and there is none like me,
10 declaring the end from the beginning and from ancient times things not yet done, saying, ‘My counsel shall stand,
and I will accomplish all my purpose,’ (ESV Strong's)
Some might say, your view of foreknowledge is not correct, because God is not a respecter of persons. My response is that God is not a respecter of persons, in the sense that Jews and Gentiles are on equal standing with him. However, God definitely has a distinguishing love for his elect, and this is not related to some personal merit that they have. In fact, he chooses some of the poorest specimens to call into a relationship with Him.
1 Corinthians 1:26-31 For consider your calling, brothers: not many of you were wise according to worldly standards, not many were powerful, not many were of noble birth. 27 But God chose what is foolish in the world to shame the wise; God chose what is weak in the world to shame the strong; 28 God chose what is low and despised in the world, even things that are not, to bring to nothing things that are, 29 so that no human being might boast in the presence of God. 30 And because of him you are in Christ Jesus, who became to us wisdom from God, righteousness and sanctification and redemption, 31 so that, as it is written, “Let the one who boasts, boast in the Lord.” (ESV Strong's)
Anyways, this is the topic for discussion. Does foreknowledge, in the context of Romans 8:28-30, imply fore-loving individuals, or does it imply simple foreknowledge of events?
Romans 8:28-30 28 And we know that for those who love God all things work together for good, for those who are called according to his purpose. 29 For those whom he foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son, in order that he might be the firstborn among many brothers. 30 And those whom he predestined he also called, and those whom he called he also justified, and those whom he justified he also glorified.
(ESV Strong's)
Notice, though, that the Scripture says that God foreknew people, not events ("those whom he foreknew"). Therefore, their view that foreknowledge means simple advanced knowledge of their faith decision is not correct. The sentence does not describe a decision that was foreknown, but a person who was foreknown.
God certainly knows all events in advance, but this is not the sense in which which this verse is using "foreknowledge".
God foreknows people, in the context of this verse.
I propose that foreknowledge, in this context, implies an intimate, distinguishing love that God has for the elect individual, which is different than the love he has for the non-elect. It is not describing simple foreknowledge of an event.
As an example, a man in a healthy marital relationship loves his wife in a distinct manner than he loves other women.
God loves the elect, in advance of the elect knowing Him, in a distinguishing manner, prior to salvation. In this manner, God foreknows all the elect.
"Knowledge" in Scripture often refers to relationship knowledge. For instance, the intimate sex act is referred to repetitively in Scripture as "knowing". Adam knew his wife Eve, and children were a result of this intimate knowledge. In the same manner, God loves with a distinguishing love those who are elect. We should not be surprised by this usage in the context of election.
Contextually, Paul uses this concept of foreknowledge in the next three chapters. Therefore, context indicates that this view is correct.
For example, this section teaches that before Jacob and Esau were born, God "hated" Esau and "loved" Jacob. So, before either knew Him, they had a relationship, with God, defined by God hating Esau and loving Jacob. It was not about their merits, as the verses indicate, but solely based on God's love for Jacob prior to his existence. He "fore-loved" Jacob and "fore-hated" Esau before either were born.
Romans 9:11-13 11 though they were not yet born and had done nothing either good or bad—in order that God's purpose of election might continue, not because of works but because of him who calls— 12 she was told, “The older will serve the younger.” 13 As it is written, “Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated.” (ESV Strong's)
He also discusses how the nation of Israel was "foreknown" by God and has not been forsaken, in the same context:
Romans 11:2 2 God has not rejected his people whom he foreknew. Do you not know what the Scripture says of Elijah, how he appeals to God against Israel? (ESV Strong's)
He is not talking about simple foreknowledge of a decision, but he is talking about foreknowledge of persons. God has a special affection for Israel, which was not merited by their behavior, as they rejected Him.
The same is true concerning Jeremiah:
Jeremiah 1:5 “Before I formed you in the womb I knew you, and before you were born I consecrated you; I appointed you a prophet to the nations.”
(ESV Strong's)
God knows his elect before they are born, and he loves them with a distinguishing love. Their relationship is defined by him prior to their existence. The same is true of the elect.
Therefore biblical foreknowledge, in the context of election, is better translated "fore-loving".
As I indicated, pronouns indicate the personal nature of this foreknowing. It is not a matter of foreknowing events, but foreknowing people.
And he foreknows (foreloves) people, as the pronouns used in this section indicate ("whom he foreknew"). It does not use the phrase "what he foreknew", which would be appropriate if he simply foreknew the events.
Make no mistake. He does know the events of the future in detail. In fact, he shapes history. But this is not biblical foreknowledge in the context of salvation.
This verse describes this event-based type of "foreknowledge":
Isaiah 46:9-10 9 remember the former things of old; for I am God, and there is no other; I am God, and there is none like me,
10 declaring the end from the beginning and from ancient times things not yet done, saying, ‘My counsel shall stand,
and I will accomplish all my purpose,’ (ESV Strong's)
Some might say, your view of foreknowledge is not correct, because God is not a respecter of persons. My response is that God is not a respecter of persons, in the sense that Jews and Gentiles are on equal standing with him. However, God definitely has a distinguishing love for his elect, and this is not related to some personal merit that they have. In fact, he chooses some of the poorest specimens to call into a relationship with Him.
1 Corinthians 1:26-31 For consider your calling, brothers: not many of you were wise according to worldly standards, not many were powerful, not many were of noble birth. 27 But God chose what is foolish in the world to shame the wise; God chose what is weak in the world to shame the strong; 28 God chose what is low and despised in the world, even things that are not, to bring to nothing things that are, 29 so that no human being might boast in the presence of God. 30 And because of him you are in Christ Jesus, who became to us wisdom from God, righteousness and sanctification and redemption, 31 so that, as it is written, “Let the one who boasts, boast in the Lord.” (ESV Strong's)
Anyways, this is the topic for discussion. Does foreknowledge, in the context of Romans 8:28-30, imply fore-loving individuals, or does it imply simple foreknowledge of events?
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