Just to be clear Jesus Christ is a human person.
We are agreed on that point: Jesus Christ is a human person.
As I have documented, historical orthodox trinitarianism teaches us that Jesus is not a human person. He is fully human, even a human being, man, but not a human person. His human nature is impersonal.
Please explain to us all here in what respect is He not a human person?
See the Council of Chalcedon. See Church history. See again the quotes from Trinitarian scholars, both Catholic and Protestant, I provided in this thread.
I‘ve said a number of times, and in various ways, that Jesus is presented in scripture as a human person.
Is it still unclear to you that, while I presented the position of historical orthodox trinitarian Christianity [“Jesus is only one person, a divine person, not a human person”] in response to your comment [“Jesus was God who became a human person”], I disagree with the position of historical orthodox trinitarian Christianity and disagree with your unorthodox presentation on the incarnation?
And another thing, I ask you in one of my post why did Jesus bring up Psalm 82:6 at John 10:30-38? What do you think the point He was making to the Jews?
I responded to your question in the thread which lead to you starting this thread. Remember?
Btw, I have every word Dr.Martin said. In written form, every tape and now cd his teachings and also numerous VHS tapes of his debates. He did debate Father Paqua regardinc Catholic teaching.
Then you should know that he was in agreement with the decision reached by the Council of Chalcedon - Jesus is a divine person, not a human person.
I was taught this in the Baptist Church. (Though in a special class, not from the pulpit. - That’s my complaint against the trinitarian clergy.) My wife was taught this in the Roman Catholic Church (and in the Catholic school system she was educated in.) I was taught this in college by a trinitarian professor. Church history teaches this.