What does it "REALLY" mean that Jesus Christ is the Son of God?

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bluto

Senior Member
Aug 4, 2016
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It should go without saying that a person who speaks about “my God” has a God. Unfortunately, sometimes it has to be said.



The Apostles are Jewish monotheists, as is the Messiah himself.



Jewish monotheists do not acknowledge Jesus Christ to be God Almighty. Jewish monotheists acknowledge that the God and Father of Jesus Christ is God Almighty. No one else. The Father alone.



Thomas is a Jewish monotheist. He did not declare that a fellow Jewish monotheist is God Almighty. What Thomas acknowledged in his declaration about Jesus is that, finally, he sees the Father when he sees Jesus. (He hadn’t seen that in John 14.)



I like the heading of this chapter in NASB “Isaiah’s vision”. That’s not scripture, but it is the understanding of the translators passed along to assist the reader.

Where was Isaiah when he saw the glory of Yahweh?



Which translation are you quoting from? John 12:41 is not rendered that way in any translation I’ve seen.

John 12:45 makes clear that Jesus is Yahweh’s shaliach. When we see and hear Jesus it is as if we see and hear the one who sent Jesus - Yahweh.



We’ve spoken frequently enough that by now you should know that‘s not what I say.

Would you be offended if I were to say that trinitarianism is a cult?



See my comment above.
Your just "chock" full of excuses, aren't you! Thomas saw the Father, really? Thomas said to "HIM/JESUS" not to the Father. And why didn't Jesus correct Thomas and say something to the effect, "Now you finally get it Thomas from what I said a year or so ago, God the Father is your Lord and God? :rolleyes:

Personally, I use the NASB. I do like the Cambridge Bible and what it says about John 12:41.

John 12:41
These things said Esaias, when he saw his glory, and spake of him.
41. when he saw] The better reading is, because he saw. We had a similar double reading in John 12:17, where ‘when’ is to be preferred. In the Greek the difference is only a single letter, ὅτε and ὅτι. Christ’s glory was revealed to Isaiah in a vision, and therefore he spoke of it. The glory of the Son before the Incarnation, when He was ‘in the form of God’ (Php 2:6), is to be understood.

I also like what the Keil and Delitzsch OT Commentary says:

In that year, says the prophet, "I saw the Lord of all sitting upon a high and exalted throne, and His borders filling the temple." Isaiah saw, and that not when asleep and dreaming; but God gave him, when awake, an insight into the invisible world, by opening an inner sense for the supersensuous, whilst the action of the outer senses was suspended, and by condensing the supersensuous into a sensuous form, on account of the composite nature of man and the limits of his present state. This was the mode of revelation peculiar to an ecstatic vision (ἐν ἐκστἀσει, Eng. ver. "in a trance," or ἐν πνεὐματι, "in the spirit"). Isaiah is here carried up into heaven; for although in other instances it was undoubtedly the earthly temple which was presented to a prophet's view in an ecstatic vision (Amos 9:1; Ezekiel 8:3; Ezekiel 10:4-5; cf., Acts 22:17), yet here, as the description which follows clearly proves, the "high and exalted throne"

(Note: It is to this, and not to ‛Adonai, as the Targum and apparently the accents imply, that the words "high and exalted" refer.)

is the heavenly antitype of the earthly throne which was formed by the ark of the covenant; and the "temple" (hēcâl: lit., a spacious hall, the name given to the temple as the palace of God the King) is the temple in heaven, as in Psalm 11:4; Psalm 18:7; Psalm 29:9, and many other passages. There the prophet sees the Sovereign Ruler, or, as we prefer to render the noun, which is formed from âdan equals dūn, "the Lord of all" (All-herrn, sovereign or absolute Lord), seated upon the throne, and in human form (Ezekiel 1:26), as is proved by the robe with a train, whose flowing ends or borders (fimibrae: shūilm, as in Exodus 28:33-34) filled the hall. The Sept., Targum, Vulgate, etc., have dropped the figure of the robe and train, as too anthropomorphic. But John, in his Gospel, is bold enough to say that it was Jesus whose glory Isaiah saw (John 12:41). And truly so, for the incarnation of God is the truth embodied in all the scriptural anthropomorphisms, and the name of Jesus is the manifested mystery of the name Jehovah. The heavenly temple is that super-terrestrial place, which Jehovah transforms into heaven and a temple, by manifesting Himself there to angels and saints. But whilst He manifests His glory there, He is obliged also to veil it, because created beings are unable to bear it. But that which veils His glory is no less splendid, than that portion of it which is revealed. And this was the truth embodied for Isaiah in the long robe and train. He saw the Lord, and what more he saw was the all-filling robe of the indescribable One. As far as the eye of the seer could look at first, the ground was covered by this splendid robe. There was consequently no room for any one to stand. And the vision of the seraphim is in accordance with this.

Btw, saying I'm in a cult, "Sticks and Stones.

IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
 
Jun 6, 2020
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...the cults, like the Jw"s, Mormons, the Unitarians especially...
A man who intended to do me harm recently asked me what kind of a cultist I am. I told him that from the day I learned that Jesus Christ has a God - Yahweh, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob - I’ve been in his cult.

The man meant to harm me, but the God of Joseph (another Jewish monotheist) planned good to come out of it. (An allusion to Genesis 50:20.)
 
Jun 6, 2020
399
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Your just "chock" full of excuses, aren't you! Thomas saw the Father, really? Thomas said to "HIM/JESUS" not to the Father. And why didn't Jesus correct Thomas and say something to the effect, "Now you finally get it Thomas from what I said a year or so ago, God the Father is your Lord and God? :rolleyes:

Personally, I use the NASB. I do like the Cambridge Bible and what it says about John 12:41.

John 12:41
These things said Esaias, when he saw his glory, and spake of him.
41. when he saw] The better reading is, because he saw. We had a similar double reading in John 12:17, where ‘when’ is to be preferred. In the Greek the difference is only a single letter, ὅτε and ὅτι. Christ’s glory was revealed to Isaiah in a vision, and therefore he spoke of it. The glory of the Son before the Incarnation, when He was ‘in the form of God’ (Php 2:6), is to be understood.

I also like what the Keil and Delitzsch OT Commentary says:

In that year, says the prophet, "I saw the Lord of all sitting upon a high and exalted throne, and His borders filling the temple." Isaiah saw, and that not when asleep and dreaming; but God gave him, when awake, an insight into the invisible world, by opening an inner sense for the supersensuous, whilst the action of the outer senses was suspended, and by condensing the supersensuous into a sensuous form, on account of the composite nature of man and the limits of his present state. This was the mode of revelation peculiar to an ecstatic vision (ἐν ἐκστἀσει, Eng. ver. "in a trance," or ἐν πνεὐματι, "in the spirit"). Isaiah is here carried up into heaven; for although in other instances it was undoubtedly the earthly temple which was presented to a prophet's view in an ecstatic vision (Amos 9:1; Ezekiel 8:3; Ezekiel 10:4-5; cf., Acts 22:17), yet here, as the description which follows clearly proves, the "high and exalted throne"

(Note: It is to this, and not to ‛Adonai, as the Targum and apparently the accents imply, that the words "high and exalted" refer.)

is the heavenly antitype of the earthly throne which was formed by the ark of the covenant; and the "temple" (hēcâl: lit., a spacious hall, the name given to the temple as the palace of God the King) is the temple in heaven, as in Psalm 11:4; Psalm 18:7; Psalm 29:9, and many other passages. There the prophet sees the Sovereign Ruler, or, as we prefer to render the noun, which is formed from âdan equals dūn, "the Lord of all" (All-herrn, sovereign or absolute Lord), seated upon the throne, and in human form (Ezekiel 1:26), as is proved by the robe with a train, whose flowing ends or borders (fimibrae: shūilm, as in Exodus 28:33-34) filled the hall. The Sept., Targum, Vulgate, etc., have dropped the figure of the robe and train, as too anthropomorphic. But John, in his Gospel, is bold enough to say that it was Jesus whose glory Isaiah saw (John 12:41). And truly so, for the incarnation of God is the truth embodied in all the scriptural anthropomorphisms, and the name of Jesus is the manifested mystery of the name Jehovah. The heavenly temple is that super-terrestrial place, which Jehovah transforms into heaven and a temple, by manifesting Himself there to angels and saints. But whilst He manifests His glory there, He is obliged also to veil it, because created beings are unable to bear it. But that which veils His glory is no less splendid, than that portion of it which is revealed. And this was the truth embodied for Isaiah in the long robe and train. He saw the Lord, and what more he saw was the all-filling robe of the indescribable One. As far as the eye of the seer could look at first, the ground was covered by this splendid robe. There was consequently no room for any one to stand. And the vision of the seraphim is in accordance with this.

Btw, saying I'm in a cult, "Sticks and Stones.

IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
I’m not in your league, bluto. Never forget that.
 
Jun 6, 2020
399
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No! Isaiah 42:8. And yes, I know what John 17:5 says. Reconcile it for me.
You’re asking me to reconcile it for you? You haven’t done your homework, and I’m not your teacher.
 

bluto

Senior Member
Aug 4, 2016
2,109
534
113
You’re asking me to reconcile it for you? You haven’t done your homework, and I’m not your teacher.
Just checking you out, trying to keep you on your toes. You don't think I'd ask a question that I did not already know the answer.

IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
 

Heavenian

Active member
Jun 18, 2020
236
129
43
Ok Mattathias, what do we have here? You said, "the angel of the Lord in the Old Testament and in the New Testament is an angel." And yes, I am familiar with the Hebrew word, "malakh" which simply means "messenger." I'm not concerned as to how many times the phrase is used. The CONTEXT determines whether or not it's "THE" angel of the Lord or "AN/A" angel of the Lord. There is only one "THE" angel of the Lord and as a side note "THE" angel of the Lord never appears in the New Testament, although He is mentioned in the NT by Stephen at Acts 7. The other thing you should know is there is a difference in definition between the word, "the" and the words "an/a." I will explain the difference later.

Now, the angel of the Lord first appears as the angel of the Lord at Genesis 16:7. He confronts Hagar and says to her, vs9, Then the angel of the Lord said to her, Return to your mistress/Sarah, and submit yourself to her. "I will greatly multiply your descendants so that they shall be too many to count." At vs11 he says your with child. Vs12, He says he will be a wild donkey of a man, everyone's hand will be against him etc.

She says at vs13, "The she called the name of the Lord who spoke to her, "Thou are a God who sees, for she said, "Have I even remained alive here after seeing Him." Now for Genesis 17:1-2. Now when Abram was ninety-nine years old, the Lord appeared to Abram and said to him, "I am God Almighty; Walk before Me, and be blameless. vs2, "And I will establish My covenant between Me and you, And I will multiply you exceedingly."

My question to you is this? Is the angel of the Lord who appeared to Abram the same being who appeared to Abram at Genesis 17:1-2? Btw, this was a physical appearance by God to Abram. PS: Trust me, this is going to be fun!

IN THE ANGEL OF THE LORD,
bluto
Brother bluto, you are right. In some verses of the OT, the Angel of the LORD is GOD ALMIGHTY our Glorious FATHER. For example, In Exodus 3:1-2 "Meanwhile, Moses was shepherding the flock of his father-in-law Jethro, the priest of Midian. He led the flock to the far side of the wilderness and came to Horeb, the mountain of God. There the Angel of the LORD appeared to him in a blazing fire from within a bush. Moses saw the bush ablaze with fire, but it was not consumed!". Here, this was GOD ALMIGHTY HIMSELF talking to Moses. Check the Hebrew word that was translated "The Angel of the LORD" and you will see that it means GOD ALMIGHTY and that was JESUS. JESUS said before Abraham was I AM.
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
37,844
13,558
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Even Levi, who receives tithes, paid tithes through Abraham, so to speak,
for he was still in the loins of his father when Melchizedek met him.

(Hebrews 7:9-10)
just as Levi gave a tenth because Levi was in Abraham his father, we sinned with Adam because we were in his loins.

what does this mean about the only Son of God -- who is in the Father, and in whom the Father is?
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
37,844
13,558
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the actual monotheism of the Torah recognizes:

the LORD God
The Angel of the LORD
the Spirit of the LORD

and variously describe each separately and equally as God, while affirming that God is one & there is no other.